No. Only bills that raise taxes or appropriate money have to originate in the House. These bills purport to cut existing appropriations.
You don't have to believe me - just look at the bill number for Boehner's plan - it is Senate Bill 627. They took a bill that had already been passed by the Senate and amended it to contain the language of the Boehner plan. So the Boehner bill does not "originate" in the House.
Of course, if Reid wanted to pass a bill that contained new spending or raise taxes, he could do something similar - "gut and amend" a bill that originated in the House.
The Boehner bill contained new spending - $17 billion in fact. So doesn’t that mean the bill has to originate in the house?
I didn’t realize that that was the nature of the bill. With all the talk of 10 year budgets it gave the impression that these were appropriations bills. These then appear to be modifications to an existing budget?
I have read much, but still not quite up on federal budgetary process.