Don’t all finance bills have to originate in the House...?
Have to? No, but supposed to.
I am thinking the same. But RATS are involved, so rules do not matter.
That was back when we had a Constitutional Government.
They all just do pretty much what they like today.
The answer I find is "All revenue bills must originate in the House of Representatives".
So the key is that when Reid said he’s bringing a bill to raise the U.S. debt ceiling and cut the deficit, THERE MUST BE NO REVENUE IN THE BILL!!!!
YES
here is the current whip count on the Boehner proposal. The undecided Reps. are as follows: Ted Poe, TX (202-225-6565); Michael Turner, OH (202-225-6465); Bill Posey, FL (202-225-3671); Jack Kingston, GA (202-225-5831); Quico Canseco, TX (202-225-4511); Scott DesJarlais, TN (202-225-6831); Morgan Griffith, VA (202-225-3861); Scott Garrett, NJ (202-225-4465); Jeff Flake, AZ (202-225-2635)
No. Only bills that raise taxes or appropriate money have to originate in the House. These bills purport to cut existing appropriations.
You don't have to believe me - just look at the bill number for Boehner's plan - it is Senate Bill 627. They took a bill that had already been passed by the Senate and amended it to contain the language of the Boehner plan. So the Boehner bill does not "originate" in the House.
Of course, if Reid wanted to pass a bill that contained new spending or raise taxes, he could do something similar - "gut and amend" a bill that originated in the House.
That's what I understood. The Senate and Executive Branch can submit proposals, but I thought the actual funding bills had to start in the House.
The Constitution is so passé. Besides, the Obamacare bill originated in the Senate.
They do the artful dodger "deeming" trick, where the Senate "Deems it" to have already passed the House, then after the House passes, the conference committee comes and the House "gives up" its right to first passage and bingo!