Yet Jesus said divorce was permissible in cases of adultery. The Torah allows for it in cases of abuse and abandonment as well.
Now, now. You're not going to allow the Words of God the Savior, Who repeated the Words of God the Father, to get in the way of the traditions of men are you??
That would involve elevating His Words to an authoritative position.
I didn’t know that allowance was in the bible. It makes sense though, as adultery will in effect nullify or invalidate the vows of marriage.
Jesus chose his words carefully, and that the exact words must be understood to determine the intended meaning.
When He means "adultery," the NT word is "moicheia":
Mark 10:11-12
He said to them, “Whoever divorces his wife and marries another commits adultery ("moicheia") against her; and if she divorces her husband and marries another, she commits adultery ("moicheia").
In the so-called “exception,” He uses a different word, "porneia," which means unlawful sexual intercourse. Jesus in Matthew 5:32 and Matthew 19:9 does not use the Greek word "moicheia," which is the Greek word for adultery.
Matthew 5:32
But I say to you, whoever divorces his wife (unless the marriage is unlawful--- "porneia") causes her to commit adultery ("moicheia"), and whoever marries a divorced woman commits adultery ("moicheia").
Matthew 19:9
I say to you, whoever divorces his wife (unless the marriage is unlawful--- "porneia") and marries another, commits adultery ("moicheia").
So Jesus did not contradict Himself by saying an indissoluble marriage could nevertheless by dissolved by "adultery". He said if the marriage were "unlawful intercourse”, then it could be dissolved because it was not a valid marriage from the beginning that God had joined together.
He's talking about situation where there was some defect tht made the first marriage null from the beginning, which means that from the git-go it was not something God had joined together. Because what GOD has joined together, no one must separate. That's Christ's law