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According to Scripture, no, Jesus did not approve of divorce for adultery.

Jesus chose his words carefully, and that the exact words must be understood to determine the intended meaning.

When He means "adultery," the NT word is "moicheia":

Mark 10:11-12
He said to them, “Whoever divorces his wife and marries another commits adultery ("moicheia") against her; and if she divorces her husband and marries another, she commits adultery ("moicheia").

In the so-called “exception,” He uses a different word, "porneia," which means unlawful sexual intercourse. Jesus in Matthew 5:32 and Matthew 19:9 does not use the Greek word "moicheia," which is the Greek word for adultery.

Matthew 5:32
But I say to you, whoever divorces his wife (unless the marriage is unlawful--- "porneia") causes her to commit adultery ("moicheia"), and whoever marries a divorced woman commits adultery ("moicheia").

Matthew 19:9
I say to you, whoever divorces his wife (unless the marriage is unlawful--- "porneia") and marries another, commits adultery ("moicheia").

So Jesus did not contradict Himself by saying an indissoluble marriage could nevertheless by dissolved by "adultery". He said if the marriage were "unlawful intercourse”, then it could be dissolved because it was not a valid marriage from the beginning that God had joined together.

He's talking about situation where there was some defect tht made the first marriage null from the beginning, which means that from the git-go it was not something God had joined together. Because what GOD has joined together, no one must separate. That's Christ's law

“So Jesus did not contradict Himself by saying an indissoluble marriage could nevertheless by dissolved by “adultery”. He said if the marriage were “unlawful intercourse”, then it could be dissolved because it was not a valid marriage from the beginning that God had joined together.”

On road now. This statement - your conclusion or another’s is false.

The analysis of passages is wrong.

Best.

Maybe that is one way to understand the Greek in Matthew 5:32 but not the most obvious one.

Porneia is translated as "prostitution" or "fornication" in texts much older than the New Testament--from porne meaning a prostitute (derived from a verb meaning to sell). So the natural way to understand it would be that a woman who is married and is unfaithful to her husband is behaving like a prostitute, which justifies the husband giving her a bill of divorcement.