Posted on 11/26/2002 7:57:18 AM PST by blam
Not necessarily, it depends upon the chemical composition of the sintering aggregate and the duration of the firing process. Alumina has very high firing temperatures, other silicates sinter at lower temperatures. Typical sintering temperatures are in the range of 1,000°C or less. Steels have typical processing temperaures around 1,800°C.
Someone higher up on the thread mentioned ice 'stacking up' and the subsequent weight. I think global weather patterns typically move from west to east ...and if this is true, it would seem to me that most of the moisture would precipitate out on the western edges of the continents (and over time), creating an enormous build up of ice/weight in selected areas.
At some point, the weight would redistribute.(?)
The suddeness being spoken of is troubling me. Wouldn't this (sudden) movement have been detected by geologists...they're all talking about slow movement over millions of years.
Possibly not. They've all been taught the same thing out of the same texts with data that is probably 10 years old, at least. Then there's the group think factor. Consider "conservation biologists."
Now lets look at geologists. How long ago was it that they ALL thought the Grand Canyon eroded only very slowly? It wasn't that long ago that we learned what could happen with a dam breach suddenly releasing a huge inland sea. So, lets say all of them measure current rates of continental movement and project backwards...
Now, how long ago was plate tectonics first posited and confirmed? About 35 years ago. It's a theory; but that doesn't mean it's completely understood.
I hope you weren't being sarcastic and I'm just too dense to have picked up on it.... have you ever read anything by Velikovsky? Your statement is pretty much his theory in a nutshell. Back in the early 50s his books caused quite a ruckus with those wacky ideas. The problem for "establishment science" has been that most of his "predictions" about the nature of certain planets and the moon have proven correct while establishment scientists have been amazingly wrong.
It's a historical fact that the tribes were moved to the northern borders of Assyria as a buffer against hostle peoples. The Assyrian tablets put that one to rest. Where they put them was up near the Causausus mountains. That's historical fact also. They had several centuries to migrate into Europe and there is evidence that prior Israelites had gotten there earlier from Egypt.
I don't see how it's so improbable. Also I'm reminded of Hosea 1:10,11:
10 Yet the number of the children of Israel shall be as the sand of the sea, which cannot be measured nor numbered; and it shall come to pass, that in the place where it was said unto them, Ye are not my people, there it shall be said unto them, Ye are the sons of the living God.
11 Then shall the children of Judah and the children of Israel be gathered together, and appoint themselves one head, and they shall come up out of the land: for great shall be the day of Jezreel.
Either God is a piker or this is to come to past. So the Northern Kingdom has to be here today and there have to be oodles of them, and they will have to be the same people from the same stock.
That's why I asked if you could think of another candidate then the European/American/Austrailian/New Zealand, ect people.
Isn't it less of a strain on the brain that the Celts were just another tribe like so many others that was out of sight of civilization until they wandered into contact? That any group of people exported from Israel wasn't all that large and probably was absorbed somewhere? Why do you have to force the two to match? It doesn't work.
When it all boils down to the residue, whether you accept that the Northern Kingdom tribes made it to Europe or not, whether they changed their language or not (You can find the list of roots words in "Missing Links Discovered in Assyrian Tablets" by E Raymond Capt, pp 187-198), or whether their culture changed or not, the fact of the Hosea 1:10, 11 prophecy (also found in Genesis and Ezekiel) remains.
If God's Word can be taken there will be a major population right now of the descendents of the Northern Kingdom. Whom would they be, unless the Celtic related peoples?
Further, is there anything basically wrong with the European types peoples being the descendents, which would justify the frequently emotional reaction of people, out here at least, to that idea? You know what I mean. You can almost hear the echo in the outraged posts: Oh God! No! Not them! Anybody but them!
If you aren't going to try, there's not much to say.
But even so, we have centuries to work with in order to get them to Europe.
Not at all! They're well established in Central and Northern Europe well in advance of the Roman expansion. The given date of 610 for an emergence in Eastern europe is probably pushing it the wrong way.
The original wave of Celtic immigrants to the British Isles are called the q-Celts and spoke Goidelic. It is not known exactly when this immigration occurred but it may be placed somtime in the window of 2000 to 1200 BC.See what I mean about this not working?From The Celts.
What was "new" about it? The children of Israel were already half way there. The reason Israel fell was the adherence to the Ba'al worship of Jeroboam son of Nebat. Read Kings II for a stirringly repetitive and boring recount. My take is that the "new" paganism of the Celts was reasonably coherent with that of Israel.
Whereas the Urnfield people may justifiably be considered to have been proto-Celtic, their descendants in Central Europe, the people of the Hallstatt culture, were certainly fully Celtic. The Hallstatt culture and its successor, that of La Tène, together represent the iron-using prehistoric peoples of much of Europe.
Aren't you glad you dignified your arguments with that?
LOL! well I haven't needed to reboot for many months. Haven't really kept track, maybe even a year.
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