Skip to comments.
The "separation of church and state" myth
Jewish World Review ^
| 7/3/02
| Linda Chavez
Posted on 07/03/2002 2:44:48 PM PDT by rhema
click here to read article
Navigation: use the links below to view more comments.
first previous 1-20, 21-26 last
To: Violette
The congress had no business putting it in for the first 50 years. It was written by Francis Bellamy, an avowed communist, for the purpose of indoctrinating americas school children into a statist philosophy and to brainwash Southerners into thinking that the union was indivisible.
21
posted on
07/04/2002 1:54:10 PM PDT
by
doryfunk
To: doryfunk
Francis Bellamy, an avowed communist, for the purpose of indoctrinating americas school children into a statist philosophy and to brainwash Southerners into thinking that the union was indivisible Actually he was more socialist than communist.
What follows is Bellamy's own account of some of the thoughts that went through his mind in August, 1892, as he picked the words of his Pledge:
It began as an intensive communing with salient points of our national history, from the Declaration of Independence onwards; with the makings of the Constitution...with the meaning of the Civil War; with the aspiration of the people... The true reason for allegiance to the Flag is the 'republic for which it stands.' ...And what does that vast thing, the Republic mean? It is the concise political word for the Nation - the One Nation which the Civil War was fought to prove. To make that One Nation idea clear, we must specify that it is indivisible, as Webster and Lincoln used to repeat in their great speeches. And its future? Just here arose the temptation of the historic slogan of the French Revolution which meant so much to Jefferson and his friends, 'Liberty, equality, fraternity.' No, that would be too fanciful, too many thousands of years off in realization. But we as a nation do stand square on the doctrine of liberty and justice for all...
22
posted on
07/04/2002 2:22:25 PM PDT
by
Violette
To: Violette
Thank you for confirming my point. Noone should take that foul oath.
23
posted on
07/04/2002 3:54:17 PM PDT
by
doryfunk
To: rhema
[Jewish Law prohibits the writing of the Creator's name out in full. The spelling below is not intended to be disrespectful, particulary given this column's topic --- editor.] This raises an interesting question. The JWR has every right, indeed must, adhere to the restrictions of the faith of the publisher. But what about standard usage? Are the words of the columnists who appear changed by or at the request editor? I don't know Linda Chavez's faith. Is she accommodating voluntarily the sensibilities of the publish of the JWR? Or is she, if this column appears as is elsewhere, giving up the traditional way those of her faith write the word of the Creator in order not to offend a minority?
To: doryfunk
Hello doryfunk.
You stated correctly, the following:
"It guarantees that Congress(the subject of the sentence) shall make no law respecting an establishment of religion, or prohibiting the free exercise thereof."
So the question before the Ninth circuit court is: Did the 1954 law, that Congress enacted to add "under God" to the Pledge of Allegiance, have the effect of "respecting the establishment of a religion?"
Why did the original Pledge not contain that phrase? Did the original authors think that the phrase "under God" may have been unconstitutional?
Is there a "law" requiring the recital of the Pledge on public property, such as a public school?
Is the meaning of the word "God" peculiar to just Christian and Jews?
Or is it a "generic" term for the higher being in all religions?
25
posted on
07/04/2002 8:29:08 PM PDT
by
tahiti
To: tahiti
"It guarantees that Congress(the subject of
the sentence) shall make no law respecting an
establishment of religion, or prohibiting the
free exercise thereof."
So the question before the Ninth circuit
court is: Did the 1954 law, that Congress
enacted to add "under God" to the Pledge of
Allegiance, have the effect of "respecting
the establishment of a religion?"
Why did the original Pledge not contain that
phrase? Did the original authors think that
the phrase "under God" may have been
unconstitutional?
The original pledge didnt have that phrase because it was written by a godless communist as a tool to brainwash children in government schools into believing that the union was the highest power to which our allegiance was owed and that said union was indivisible. It was and is a propoganda tool.
Is there a "law" requiring the recital of the
Pledge on public property, such as a public
school?
In some States, counties, and cities there is such a law. Their is no federal law to that effect. Thus Congress didnt pass a law that required the students to say the pledge and the 1st ammendment was not violated.
Is the meaning of the word "God" peculiar to
just Christian and Jews?
Or is it a "generic" term for the higher being
in all religions?
Neither. Its not particular to Christians and Jews, but their are some religions who would not use that term.
26
posted on
07/04/2002 8:57:51 PM PDT
by
doryfunk
Navigation: use the links below to view more comments.
first previous 1-20, 21-26 last
Disclaimer:
Opinions posted on Free Republic are those of the individual
posters and do not necessarily represent the opinion of Free Republic or its
management. All materials posted herein are protected by copyright law and the
exemption for fair use of copyrighted works.
FreeRepublic.com is powered by software copyright 2000-2008 John Robinson