Posted on 01/25/2024 6:28:17 AM PST by CFW
My understanding is that the penalty for section 3 of the 14th amendment has been eliminated. It is the only amendment with a clause for removal included in the amendment.
No. Until early last century, others did not select individual candidates for office on ballots provided by the state. Instead, each party would print ballots with all of the candidates for that party listed. Voters would get the ballot from their party and would submit them at the polls. This is where “straight ticket” voting came from. During the 1860 election, Democrats so outnumbered the GOP in some Southern states that the GOP did not even bother to print ballots.
The Republicans in Congress blamed the pre-war Southern politicians for the war and didn’t want them being sent back to Congress after their states were “re-admitted.” Section 3 allowed Congress remove the ineligibility for office in individual cases. I think by 1872 many of the pre-war politicians were no longer excluded. 1898 was the year of the Spanish-American War where Northerners and Southerners joined together to fight a foreign enemy. Probably by then very few pre-war Southern politicians were still alive and interested in running for office and had not had the disability removed already, so it was probably a symbolic move to reflect the spirit of national unity.
The deep state has been trying to federalize elections for a long time. Does H.R.1 ring a bell? I don’t see them deferring to the states on Federal Elections.
There is no way they can rule against Trump. If they do it simply means that all federal elections are done. Any state can remove any person from whatever ballot they want based on what they believe to be true.
If you’re the blackmailer, do you want to make it known that the blackmailee is being blackmailed? Maybe you let [Roberts] vote with the other 8, this time.
Or maybe you rub everyone’s nose in it.
Thanks.
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