Based on the unanimous ruling on the one area if the Immigration ruling I thought it would be unanimous that it was unconstitutional per the Commerce Clause and IT WAS
Never figured on the TAX ruling—That came from left field
Question. Didn’t SCOTUS declare part of the law unconstitutional medicaid? If they didn’t address the severability issue, then by declaring part of it void, didn’t they void the whole thing? What am I missing here?