Posted on 03/14/2010 7:31:09 AM PDT by raptor22
Quote: “Your question doesn;t make sense. The constitutidoesn;t grant line item authority. The whole bill is either signed, allowed to lapse or vetoed.”
My point was that congress passed a line item veto when Clinton was in office and the courts declared it unconstitutional. Someone had stated that the courts never get involved in the legislative process. I asked the question to point out that it is simply not true that the courts are not involved.
I don’t remember reading that case. Do you have the cite?
Thanks
you unfairly diss the “cute” tea parties, imho
Kudos to those who keep turning out all over the USA and to the hundreds of thousands who marched on DC last Fall
Congress creatures may be able to turn their “town halls” into teleconferences, as my liberal rats Sarbanes and Cardin have done
But let them try to run their campaigns next fall and from here forward without being able to face their constituents in public
at least, not without SEIU purple people beater thugs as body guards against all these newly inspired and politicized seniors, soccer moms, and other previously silent majorities
“If we are astroturf, why are they trying to mow us?”
Bring It. Let it be in my lifetime.
If that were true, then the United States Supreme Court would be an idle mechanism. They may not interfere "while" Congress is performing it's function, but they can rule if the process is constitutional, should such a case be brought before them.
In other words, Congress can do whatever the hell it likes, but if, in so doing they create a law that by proposition or process is unconstitutional, and the case is brought before them, then the Court can do whatever the hell it likes...
Obama will be lucky if he makes it to the end of his four year term...
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