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Did the Fourteenth Amendment make the American People Citizens of the Federal Government?
Sierra Times ^ | Robert Greenslade

Posted on 09/19/2003 10:05:29 AM PDT by Sir Gawain

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To: Spiff

I moved to CA in '58, before the majority here infringed upon my rights, violations I fought through political action. I continue to support the fight thru legal recourse.
If the USSC appeal fails, we will take our fight to increasing levels of civil disobedience. -- Unintended consequenses may arise.
Surprisingly, a lot of socalled FR 'conservatives' are against such constitutional action..
-- Are you? - Yall?

Spiff: -- Where do you stand on CA's supposed 'right' to ignore our US Constitutions BOR's ?





You and I have had this argument before. The Constitution created and empowered a limited Federal government. The BOR provided further express limitations on that Federal government. When amendments in the BORs says "Congress shall make no law" that becomes obvious.
If not, then the Constitution formed a national government and the states are simply subdivisions of the whole. But, you and I both know that is not what was intended.
-spiff-


Yep, we both know that puts you solidly behind the supposed 'right' of fed/state/local governments to violate our constitutional, inalienable RKBA's.

Really weird position, one you cannot defend. -- Thanks.
41 posted on 09/19/2003 1:51:03 PM PDT by tpaine ( I'm trying to be Mr Nice Guy, but politics keep getting in me way. ArnieRino for Governator)
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To: ancient_geezer
Well hardly a false premise at all considering this statement.

The powers reserved to the several States will extend to all the objects which, in the ordinary course of affairs, concern the lives, liberties, and properties of the people, and the internal order, improvement, and prosperity of the State. The operations of the federal government will be most extensive and important in times of war and danger; those of the State governments, in times of peace and security.

Perhaps you could inform us who stated that?

Under this system, the federal government would act as the agent of the States and its powers would relate to mutual relations between the States and external or foreign affairs.

That was the original intent. Contrary to the Hamiltonians and other king worshippers around here, the union was voluntary

42 posted on 09/19/2003 1:53:11 PM PDT by billbears (Deo Vindice)
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To: tpaine
Yep, we both know that puts you solidly behind the supposed 'right' of fed/state/local governments to violate our constitutional, inalienable RKBA's.

No. It doesn't. Our right to keep a bear arms, among other rights, is inalienable. No government has the "right" to violate them.

That, however, does not mean that the protections included in the BORs applies to state governments as the U.S. Constitution did not form the state governments. The proper location for BOR-like protections which apply to the states would be within the various constitutions of the states.

That is how the Founding Fathers intended things to be. That is NOT how things are practiced today.

43 posted on 09/19/2003 1:58:04 PM PDT by Spiff (Have you committed one random act of thoughtcrime today?)
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To: billbears
The same James Madison in Federalist #45 and the same who said:

James Madison, Federalist #39:

The National Government has enumerated powers that extend as Federal over the States as well as NATIONAL over the individual. Those powers are enumerated and few, but just the same plenary and supreme with regard to the States & the individual.

Constitution for the United States of America:

Your point is?

Under this system, the federal government would act as the agent of the States and its powers would relate to mutual relations between the States and external or foreign affairs.

Merely the invalid conclusion of the Author.

That was the original intent.

Of the anti Constitionalists, i.e. those supporting the Articles of Confederation as their target. Not the Constitution of Madison.

44 posted on 09/19/2003 2:12:22 PM PDT by ancient_geezer
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To: Held_to_Ransom
Congress did not need to get involved. That was never the issue. Florida's legislature is empowered by the constitution to decide how its electors are selected. It laid down the rules as to how votes were to be counted and the FSC UNconstitutionally stuck its snout into the mess which the USSC removed by returning the authority to the rules constitutionally laid down by the Florida legislature.

There NEVER was a problem in the first place until the RATS ginned up one. The same EXACT method of voting has been used FOR YEARS up here in RAT central, Cook County. Funny that OUR error rate was HIGHER than that of Florida yet no challenges were ever raised. WONDER WHY?

There is no question who won the state. EVERY SINGLE COUNT SHOWED BUSH THE WINNER. Only the terminally gullible, corrupt RATS or the utterly uninformed thought there was a problem there.

In no way did the government of Florida abrogate its responsibility. In fact, the controversy resulted from the RAT'S desire to PREVENT the governments rules from being followed.

It is true that Congress could have gotten involved had the USSC not properly settled it but that was not necessary since the STATE had already certified the results as it was bound to do BY LAW.
45 posted on 09/19/2003 2:19:18 PM PDT by justshutupandtakeit (America's Enemies foreign and domestic agree. Bush must be destroyed.)
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To: billbears
-- "Under this system, the federal government would act as the agent of the States and its powers would relate to mutual relations between the States and external or foreign affairs." ---


That was the original intent. Contrary to the Hamiltonians and other king worshippers around here, the union was voluntary.
-bill b-

Indeed, -- "Under this system, the federal government would act as the agent of the States and its powers would relate to mutual relations between the States and external or foreign affairs." --- but it was amended by the BOR's:

The tenth amendments words are clear.
Some powers are delegated to the feds, some to the states, but all are reserved to the people.
--- And all such delegated powers are subject to amendment by the people.

We the people, in effect, retain all such powers/rights, as they are inalienable. -- Liberties cannot be amended away.

-- We are sovereign individuals, and our governments are not 'sovereign' over us.

Thus a majority in a state cannot vote to withdraw from our constitutional contract, in effect forcing me to either involuntarily secede from our union, or abandon my home.
46 posted on 09/19/2003 2:19:37 PM PDT by tpaine ( I'm trying to be Mr Nice Guy, but politics keep getting in me way. ArnieRino for Governator)
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To: billbears
Can one be a citizen of the state of North Carolina without being a citizen of the United States? No. Could one EVER have been? No.
47 posted on 09/19/2003 2:22:55 PM PDT by justshutupandtakeit (America's Enemies foreign and domestic agree. Bush must be destroyed.)
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To: Spiff
The way "things are practiced today", puts you solidly behind the supposed 'right' of fed/state/local governments to violate our constitutional, inalienable RKBA's.


That is what is happening in CA. -- and you support it.



48 posted on 09/19/2003 2:25:41 PM PDT by tpaine ( I'm trying to be Mr Nice Guy, but politics keep getting in me way. ArnieRino for Governator)
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To: billbears

Contrary to the Hamiltonians and other king worshippers around here,

Intersting how some devolve to name calling when presented with evidence contrary to their fantasies. Tell us how you ever expect to make changes when you refuse to recognize you true current condition.

You can't even propose amendment to the Constitution to change that which you do not like, for you fail to recognize the authority of the Constitution and it's Articles to achieve that.

the union was voluntary

Right up until the people of the United States ratified the Constitution making it the Supreme Law of the Land replacing the Articles of Confederation you would like in place.

You want the Union to be voluntary? Enact & ratify an amendment to achieve that end. That is the method provided for by the People of the United States in the Constitution to make such changes.

You don't like the tax system in the Country, amend the Constitution to remove the powers of Congress you object to.

You don't like the Commerce Clause?, amend the Constitution to repeal that enumerated power of Congress.

You don't like the power to borrow, and create fiat dollars, amend the Constitution to repeal the enumerated power of Congress.

You don't like ... ??

It's all up to you the voter/juror and potential candidate for office and the 1st, 9th, & 10th Amendments and Article V of the Constitution.

Get busy you're falling further behind each day you fail to address the real problem; that of the majority of American people who don't care enough about liberty and want their security instead.

49 posted on 09/19/2003 2:37:25 PM PDT by ancient_geezer
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To: Milligan
I'll give you my answer while you're waiting for Sir Gawain's.

The parts of the 14th amendment that refer to "persons" - that is, the due-process and equal-protection clauses - protect everyone who comes within the reach of any state, even illegal immigrants.

50 posted on 09/19/2003 2:37:25 PM PDT by inquest (World socialism: the ultimate multinational corporation)
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To: tpaine
The way "things are practiced today", puts you solidly behind the supposed 'right' of fed/state/local governments to violate our constitutional, inalienable RKBA's. That is what is happening in CA. -- and you support it.

No, again, it doesn't. As I completely, 100%, unashamedly, wholeheartedly, and angrily disagree with the way things are being practiced today. The Constitution has been shredded and trampled underfoot for so long that it is nearly unrecognizable. Additionally, our inalienable rights are being violated without hesitation, at every turn by federal, state, and county governments. Sigh...

51 posted on 09/19/2003 2:39:14 PM PDT by Spiff (Have you committed one random act of thoughtcrime today?)
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To: Sir Gawain
Since the federal government is, by definition and intent, the common government of the several States, not the general government of the American people, the Fourteenth Amendment could not have made them citizens of the States’ government.

Few residents of the 50 states are aware of, let alone understand this fundamental Constitutional principle. Most Americans today consider themselves RESIDENTS of a state, but CITIZENS of the United States — and neither the states nor the feds do anything to disabuse the people of this false notion. This, of course, is due to a long-standing failure to responsibly and accurately teach the Constitution and Constitutional history in our schools. I don't know the remedy for it at this stage in our history.

52 posted on 09/19/2003 2:59:34 PM PDT by Wolfstar (NO SECURITY = NO ECONOMY)
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To: justshutupandtakeit
Congress did not need to get involved. That was never the issue. Florida's legislature is empowered by the constitution to decide how its electors are selected.

Not true, Congress was obligated to be involved.

The Florida legislature had those rights, but it had made it's choice on how the electors were to be selected. That failed, and there is nothing that automatically gives them the right to change their minds afterwards, unless they had clarified the matter before hand that if the election was a failure, they reserved the right to select delegates by some other means. If they did, then they should have. As for the Florida courts, they had a role to play, but it was only as an umpire to legitimately count readable votes, or as a judge to disqualify votes that could be proved to be gotten under some illegal circumstance. They had no legal option to recreate the counting system, or to tamper with the election results. Since merely recounting those lame chad things tampers with the count, they actually had no right to even consider doing that. The election failed. Period. Now, the ball had to go to the House, and the House, by meams of the Constitition, had the right to do what it wanted to do. It could have called the election for either party, it could have accepted a panel of delegates from the Florida legislature even if the legislature had been dumb enough to give away that right. But no one else had that right, either implicitly or constructively.

unless, again, the Florida legislature had given itself the right before the election in the case that the election failed. But that would be a situation that could be challenged in the courts anyways, as it is the responsibility of the government to see that the elections are valid, fair and interpretable. Florida's results were not, and any state that uses a voting system with a 2 or 3 percent margin error is in the same boat. I note that the new touch screen systems have a higher degree of error than those crappy chad systems, yet many states are switching over to them in a hurry. Something stinks, and we both assuredly know what it is, even if only one of us would ever admit it. It laid down the rules as to how votes were to be counted and the FSC UNconstitutionally stuck its snout into the mess which the USSC removed by returning the authority to the rules constitutionally laid down by the Florida legislature.

Utter crap. there is only one way to count votes, and a first grader could tell you. Where the elections results are tighter then the mechanical margins of error, there is no election, only a fraud, a sham of one, and a disgrace to our way of life. That we can send a man to the moon and yet not get a countable and accurate vote is a joke of the worst sort.

re NEVER was a problem in the first place until the RATS ginned up one. The same EXACT method of voting has been used FOR YEARS up here in RAT central, Cook County. Funny that OUR error rate was HIGHER than that of Florida yet no challenges were ever raised. WONDER WHY? </>

Good point. As a nation we have come to accept bullshit as a standard.

There is no question who won the state. EVERY SINGLE COUNT SHOWED BUSH THE WINNER. Only the terminally gullible, corrupt RATS or the utterly uninformed thought there was a problem there.

A patent falsehood. The machines can't produce an accurate result close enough to determine who won that election, and never will be able to. Floridians should be out with tar and feathers, but they don't care, and so one of our greatest traditions and principles sinks into the mud to never be seen again.

In no way did the government of Florida abrogate its responsibility. In fact, the controversy resulted from the RAT'S desire to PREVENT the governments rules from being followed.

NO, the govenrment of Florida had the responsibility ot hold a valid election. It did not, and the voters and the nation were ripped off, whether or not the winner was bush or gore. It's like marrying a virgin and having every guy in town come to give her a Fremch kiss at the wedding.

It is true that Congress could have gotten involved had the USSC not properly settled it but that was not necessary since the STATE had already certified the results as it was bound to do BY LAW.

If htat legal obligaition was valid, then so was the legal obligation to insure a clear and valid election process. You can't call it just for the things you want and not for the thinks you don't like, or we live in farce.

53 posted on 09/19/2003 3:07:11 PM PDT by Held_to_Ransom
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To: Held_to_Ransom
You say that the elections had "failed" (despite the fact that the competent authorities in Tallahassee had certified the result). That means no electors have been chosed from Florida. What would have been Congress' option then? Nothing in the Constitution gives them the power to substitute their own electors. The bottom line to me is that the Florida legislature had a procedure in place to determine how to choose the electors, and Florida's supreme court appeared to substitute their own rules as to how to proceed.
54 posted on 09/19/2003 3:39:30 PM PDT by inquest (World socialism: the ultimate multinational corporation)
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To: inquest
What happens to those legal aliens who try to violently overthrow our government?
Will Amendment XIV be null? They are not US citizens?
55 posted on 09/19/2003 3:51:02 PM PDT by Milligan
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To: Milligan
Same thing, I would imagine, that would happen to citizens who try to violently overthrow the government.
56 posted on 09/19/2003 3:55:10 PM PDT by inquest (World socialism: the ultimate multinational corporation)
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To: inquest
So what's the purpose of being a US citizen?
57 posted on 09/19/2003 4:07:00 PM PDT by Milligan
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To: Milligan
It basically means that you have a bunch of privileges (such as property ownership) and immunities (most importantly, immunity from being deported) that aren't ordinarily available to outsiders.
58 posted on 09/19/2003 4:12:12 PM PDT by inquest (World socialism: the ultimate multinational corporation)
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To: inquest
You say that the elections had "failed" (despite the fact that the competent authorities in Tallahassee had certified the result).

On the contrary, the election proved that the were no authorities in Tallahassee competent to handle an election that close. Period. History will mark this as a truth.

That means no electors have been chosed from Florida. What would have been Congress' option then? Nothing in the Constitution gives them the power to substitute their own electors.

There are the legal precedents from Hayes/Tilden wherin Congress sattled the matter by appointing a committee.

Nothing in the Constitution gives them the power to substitute their own electors. The bottom line to me is that the Florida legislature had a procedure in place to determine how to choose the electors, and Florida's supreme court appeared to substitute their own rules as to how to proceed.

FLorida did have a procedure, but it clearly failed. Florida did not hold a determinable election, hence it will never be known who won the election in the state of Florida. Congress though had legal precedents to settle the matter, the courts did not. The concept of a fair and determinable election far outweighs any party nonsense from either side.

SOmeday, parhaps the people of Florida should look into what it takes to run a legitimate election. I won't hold my breath until then though.

59 posted on 09/19/2003 4:27:35 PM PDT by Held_to_Ransom
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To: Spiff
Our right to keep a bear arms, among other rights, is inalienable. No government has the "right" to violate them.
That, however, does not mean that the protections included in the BORs applies to state governments --
-spiff-

One of the "protections included in our BORs" is the 2nd amendment. - It applies to fed/state/local governments, as per the supremacy clause. [See Art. VI]

Thus, you support the concept that CA can violate our RKBA's.
-- You cannot deny that you wrote just above that the BOR's does not apply to state governments.
This selfsame concept is being used by CA to violate our constitution, and our right to keep a bear arms.
60 posted on 09/19/2003 4:29:42 PM PDT by tpaine ( I'm trying to be Mr Nice Guy, but politics keep getting in me way. ArnieRino for Governator)
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