Posted on 05/17/2011 11:33:27 AM PDT by Kaslin
39% of blacks voting Republican? I’ll take it!
Your chart shows that the black vote did not become monolithically Democrat until 1964 (or maybe 1984, depends on how you define it).
It is overwhelming, but not monolithic. If Black voters returned to their 1956 preferences of 61%D-39%R, it would have a drastically different outcome in scores of races from coast-to-coast. It would also dramtically increase the number of Black Republicans holding office and invalidate the argument that the GOP is “exclusively” a White party.
I don’t understand, I sure see an overwhelming, black vote for the Democrat party since 1936 in that chart, before that, it was the opposite.
What do you see, an occasional Republican vote?
Apparently blacks liked Ike more than they liked FDR. And they voted for George Wallace in higher percentages than for any white GOP president since then.
Thats it? In a re election year Republicans got 39% of the black vote and that says something?
That year was such a flop for the weak Democrat that Jews gave the GOP 40%, and Catholics voted Republican for the first time in our history, (some dispute that the Catholic vote went GOP that year, but Gallup says they did with 51%).
It does change the claim that the Catholic vote could be perfectly monolithic, but doesn’t say much about that in regards to the black and Jewish vote.
The blue is the black vote that went democrat, blacks voted overwhelmingly for FDR, but they did not vote for Ike.
George Wallace was not in the GOP, he was a Democrat that ran in 1964 and 1972, but in 1968 he ran in The American Independent Party, blacks did not support him.
First of all, when you consider that by 1956, most of the cities where Blacks had clustered (and permitted to vote) were Democrat-controlled, secondly, you forget that a huge number of Black voters in the South were blatantly disenfranchised, and even at that, the fact the GOP still got 11% short of a majority is rather an excellent showing. Had ALL Blacks of eligible age been able to participate, I have no doubt that Ike would’ve received an outright majority of the vote. In fact, it was solely because the South disenfranchised the Black vote that it remained so monolithically Democrat for as long as it did, well out-of-whack with the rest of the country in its voting preferences until the 1960s or later.
I know Wallace was a dem. I was going by the graph provided above for presidential elections. 39% black vote for Ike in 1956. When Wallace was governor, he got a relatively high % of the black vote. Not so much when he ran for POTUS, as you pointed out.
Has he?
Against RAP music or imagined racism?
Any info would be appreciated, FRiend!
Regards,
Levante
I don’t know why you would claim that I forgot something like that, but I don’t understand your post, or your claims in regards to Presidential elections.
The black vote had always been Republican and it was bought, instantly, and permanently by the Democrats in 1936.
Blacks had always voted Republican, and in 1932 they gave the FDR a normal 23% of their vote, in 1936 they gave him 71% and they never looked back, they were bought, not intimidated.
OOps, didn’t realize your post included a link....D’oh!
I don’t understand that last sentence.
What exactly don’t you understand ? Part of what I attempted to do was choreograph how we got from point A to point B with respect to the Black vote, and that it’s a bit more complicated and intricate than your generalizing declarations. I don’t understand why you’re acting a bit hostile/defensive on this subject in general when we go into the details, and this isn’t the first time you’ve reacted this way, either. Is there some reason for that ?
bttt
“In fact, it was solely because the South disenfranchised the Black vote that it remained so monolithically Democrat for as long as it did, well out-of-whack with the rest of the country in its voting preferences until the 1960s or later.”
OK, this you claim you don’t understand. What don’t you get ? Once most Southern states were “redeemed” by the Democrats at the end of Reconstruction, they systematically intimated or disenfranchised Black voters (culminating with Jim Crow laws by 1900) and even White Republicans as well. Had those individuals been permitted to participate in the political process, you’d have never had monolithically Democrat states in the South from effectively the 1870s until the 1960s. Or are you going to tell me states like Mississippi voting 97% or South Carolina voting 99% (!) for FDR in 1936 was “mainstream” ?
I’m not hostile, I just don’t understand your posts, they aren’t making sense to me.
Post 51 should have explained away some of what you were claiming about how blacks vote Presidentially, but I don’t know what this sentence is saying in relation to the facts about the black Presidential vote.
“In fact, it was solely because the South disenfranchised the Black vote that it remained so monolithically Democrat for as long as it did, well out-of-whack with the rest of the country in its voting preferences until the 1960s or later.”
You sound hostile, I wasn’t “claiming” to not understand that sentence, I did not understand it. You also seem to be getting away from Presidential elections.
How does what you are saying fit in with this?
///”The black vote had always been Republican and it was bought, instantly, and permanently by the Democrats in 1936.
Blacks had always voted Republican, and in 1932 they gave the FDR a normal 23% of their vote, in 1936 they gave him 71% and they never looked back, they were bought, not intimidated.”\\\
You wrote “The black vote switched to overwhelmingly and permanently democrat in 1936, there is no “almost” and there is no “50 years” and there is no “Kennedy” as is usually mentioned, or in this case, implied.”
I say that there is some truth to the theory that the Civil Rights battles during the Kennedy Administration (nevermind that Republicans cast a higher percentage of votes for the Civil Rights Act) and LBJ’s demagoguery during his 1964 race against Barry Goldwater was what made the black vote permanently and overwhelmingly Democrat. If Ike could get 39% in 1956 and Nixon could get over 30% in 1960, then the black vote was sufficiently in play prior to 1964 that I would not use the adverb “overwhelmingly” to describe the Democrat lean of black voters in those days (particularly given that President Bush’s 11% in 2004 was a great victory for the GOP).
I think that the New Deal certainly ended the GOP’s dominance of the black vote, but that the Kennedy years, the 1960s Civil Rights movement and the 1964 election were instrumental in making the black vote even more Democrat from 1964 to the present than it had been Republican during the early 20th century.
Did FDR get more than 39% of the black vote in 1932? If he did, I don’t think that it was much more than that.
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