Whither the Scots? (Independence on the near horizon?)

The English did not 'conquer' Scotland in 1290

Nor did I say they did. You must have me confused with some other poster.

The physical occupation of Scotland took place only in 1296,not 1290.

Nor did I say that Scotland was physically occupied before 1296. Again, perhaps you are confusing me with some other poster.

However, one could argue with some justice that since John Balliol swore vassalage to Edward of England in 1291 in a preplanned move, that English power was established in England when the English client Balliol advanced his claim upon the death of young Margaret in 1290.

Not only did the Scots expel the English in 1314 from Scotland after Bannockburn

The expulsion of the English did not end the territorial claims of English subjects or the English king. Nor did it mean the end of English occupation. Starting in 1333 large parts of the Lowlands came under English rule again.

BUT you are amazingly ignoring the 1328 Treaty of Northampton where England legally recognised Scotland's existance as an independent nation.

That treaty was repudiated by the English five years after it was signed. Paying special attention to that failed treaty is a mistake.

The English kings never formally abandoned the claim to be the Lords Paramount of Scotland.

I chose the year 1357 as a signal year because that was the year in which the English kings began to practically behave as if all English terrtorial and legal claims in Scotland had failed.

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