Posted on 11/15/2005 6:22:45 AM PST by robowombat
Can one party to a contract unilaterally reinterpret the meaning of the contract years after it is signed? How many of the states which initially created the current U.S. government by ratifying the Constitution in 1787-1788 believed they were taking an irrevocable step?
So when are you moving to Vermont?
Gee, isn't this the way seceding is treated here in the US? This is the way it was done years ago, it should be good enough for today's Vermonters.
I would have to say yes if it is the federal government. Look at socialist insecurity, they change the rules on that all the time. the court has ruled on this once, and when a territory becomes a state they have to follow the covenants set down before they are admitted. Sort of like buying into an HOA you may not have been there when it is formed, but if you want to buy there you have to agree to follow their rules.
Although I find it interesting to note that when the war was over the Fed Govt required the Confederate States to rewrite their constitutions before they would be readmitted. Which begs the question, if they never truly seceeded because the Union was inseperable, how could they be required to rewrite their State Constitutions before they could be readmitted?
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