Posted on 08/14/2004 10:58:52 AM PDT by forest
So would this apply to real property as well? Could, for example, the sale of one's home (prior to the 16th, that is) be taxed under the rules of an indirect tax?
Could, for example, the sale of one's home (prior to the 16th, that is) be taxed under the rules of an indirect tax?
I have found nothing to indicate otherwise, all that is required as far as I can determine is wherther or not it is politically feasible for the federal government to get away with it.
If you can have an excise tax on gross sales value as in an estate tax, the sale of land or a house is just another exchange or event transfering property open to taxation as an excise.
As held discussing the nature of estate taxes as an indirect tax in:
KNOWLTON v. MOORE, 178 U.S. 41 (1900)
- 'indirect taxes are levied upon the happening of an event or an exchange.'
A LAW DICTIONARY
by John Bouvier, Revised Sixth Edition, 1856:
EXCISES. This word is used to signify an inland imposition, paid sometimes upon the consumption of the commodity, and frequently upon the retail sale.
True, but with the current in place, individuals and corps with lobbyists will still be able to affect the rest of the tax laws get loopholes for their clients. By switching to a consumption tax, they lose this power entirely (at least on a national level.)
Other benefits of a NST are that those who don't pay any national taxes currently (illegal aliens and other criminals) would finally be supporting the rest of us. And, as illegal criminals they wouldn't even be getting the refund checks that honest Americans would be getting! Just this point alone would get it through CA and TX I think!
Disclaimer: Opinions posted on Free Republic are those of the individual posters and do not necessarily represent the opinion of Free Republic or its management. All materials posted herein are protected by copyright law and the exemption for fair use of copyrighted works.