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Did the Civil War truly settle the secession question?
C-Pol: Constitutionalist, Conservative Politics ^ | February 17, 2010 | Tim T.

Posted on 02/17/2010 3:43:05 PM PST by Constitutionalist Conservative

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To: Non-Sequitur

“Obviously he was not.”

Only a propagandist could read his words and conclde that.


61 posted on 02/18/2010 9:55:34 AM PST by CodeToad (If it weren't for physics and law enforcement I'd be unstoppable!)
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To: iowamark

Are you also well aware that our founding fathers seceded from Great Britain? Have you read any of Washington’s, Jefferson’s, Adams, or Henry’s words?


62 posted on 02/18/2010 9:56:26 AM PST by Conservative9
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To: Constitutionalist Conservative
Based on the responses to Scalia: No to secession I would say that the answer to the question is an emphatic NO!
63 posted on 02/18/2010 10:02:52 AM PST by Bigun ("It is difficult to free fools from the chains they revere." Voltaire)
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To: Conservative9
I am sorry but I am not following your logic or conclusions. Are you using absurdity to support your name, non-sequitur?

Then let me try again. The claim was made by you that in his 1848 speech Lincoln was supporting secession when it is obvious he was not. Secession and rebellion are not synonymous, one is a legal course of action and the other is not.

The South did secede peacefully- Lincoln made it hell, which you seem to think is a sacred right.

All governments have the right to suppress rebellion and the U.S. is no different. The power to do so is contained in Article I, Section 8. But any hell that may have fallen on the South was the result of their choosing war to further their aims. No hostile acts had been taken towards the South prior to their bombardment of Sumter. War was their choice, hell was their reward for that choice.

Jefferson said rebellion from time to time, including blood shed, would be useful and necessary to restrain the power of government. I hope we both pray that our current state of affairs does not come to that. But if you think that is more “sacred” than peaceful secession I could be wrong.

As Lincoln pointed out any people any where have the right to rebel. It is not my place to pass judgement on their motivations any more than it would be their place to pass judgement on mine.

Can we at least agree on that?

We can.

64 posted on 02/18/2010 10:04:55 AM PST by Non-Sequitur
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To: CodeToad
Only a propagandist could read his words and conclde that.

I can't imagine how anyone can read them and conclude otherwise.

"Any people anywhere, being inclined and having the power, have the right to rise up, and shake off the existing government, and form a new one that suits them better. This is a most valuable,— most sacred right—a right, which we hope and believe, is to liberate the world. Nor is this right confined to cases in which the whole people of an existing government, may choose to exercise it. Any portion of such people that can, may revolutionize, and make their own, of so much of the teritory as they inhabit. More than this, a majority of any portion of such people may revolutionize, putting down a minority, intermingled with, or near about them, who may oppose their movement. Such minority, was precisely the case, of the tories of our own revolution. It is a quality of revolutions not to go by old lines, or old laws; but to break up both, and make new ones."

65 posted on 02/18/2010 10:08:13 AM PST by Non-Sequitur
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To: Conservative9

1776 was a revolution, not a secession.


66 posted on 02/18/2010 10:14:46 AM PST by iowamark
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To: iowamark
1776 was a revolution, not a secession.

You mean you never learned about how we won our independence after the Secessionary War with Great Britain?

67 posted on 02/18/2010 10:25:18 AM PST by Non-Sequitur
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To: trek
That's the point. That is why it is so important to restore the Constitutional balance by repealing the 14th, 15th, 16th and 17th Amendments as a starting point to restoring the Sovereignty of the States.

Hear here!

BRAVO!!!

68 posted on 02/18/2010 10:34:05 AM PST by Bigun ("It is difficult to free fools from the chains they revere." Voltaire)
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To: Regulator

Secession is a right of any State.

I disagree.

"The Preamble of The Constitution says:

'We the People of the United States, in Order to form a more perfect Union, establish Justice, insure domestic Tranquility, provide for the common defence, promote the general Welfare, and secure the Blessings of Liberty to ourselves and our Posterity, do ordain and establish this Constitution for the United States of America.'

Formed by the people, the whole people, of the United States, its existence is dependent on them, aud not on the States ; and it can only be dissolved by the power that give it birth; States may pass ordinances of seccession, but they cannot over- throw the fabric created by the source of all political authority in this country — the people." - In Congress, Rep. Edward J. Morris (Penn) January 30, 1861.

The union known as The United States was formed by the people, the whole of the people, and only the whole of the people have the authority to dissolve it.

Requiem æternam dona eis, Domine; In memoria æterna erit justus, ab auditione mala non timebit.

Beauseant!

69 posted on 02/18/2010 10:34:05 AM PST by Lancelot Jones (Non nobis, Domine, non nobis, sed nomini tuo da gloriam.)
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To: iowamark

“1776 was a revolution, not a secession.”

Semantics. The result is the same: A territory decides they no longer will be governed by their current authority and will form their own government.


70 posted on 02/18/2010 10:38:14 AM PST by CodeToad (If it weren't for physics and law enforcement I'd be unstoppable!)
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To: CodeToad
Semantics. The result is the same...

The same can be said about murder and capital punishment.

71 posted on 02/18/2010 10:40:09 AM PST by Non-Sequitur
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To: Non-Sequitur

“legal course of action “

What legal doctrine would that be? Please be specific. Please also state the legal process by which a State may seceed from the United States and your legal reference for the process. You keep saying there is one, yet, you’ve never defined it.


72 posted on 02/18/2010 10:41:28 AM PST by CodeToad (If it weren't for physics and law enforcement I'd be unstoppable!)
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To: muawiyah

Wrong AGAIN-! Lincoln provoked the south by resupplying a military base in their sovereign territory. Go back and bone up on your history before proving yourself a fool AGAIN-!


73 posted on 02/18/2010 10:42:15 AM PST by imjimbo (The constitution SHOULD be our "gun permit")
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To: Non-Sequitur
Lincoln happened to be speaking of Texans and Mexico

Was he really? Or is it possible that hes was talking about the failed socialist revolutions which took place in Europe at that time?

74 posted on 02/18/2010 10:46:11 AM PST by Bigun ("It is difficult to free fools from the chains they revere." Voltaire)
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To: nanetteclaret; piroque; manc; GOP_Raider; TenthAmendmentChampion; snuffy smiff; slow5poh; ...

Dixie Ping


75 posted on 02/18/2010 10:49:31 AM PST by stainlessbanner
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To: CodeToad

Semantics.

No, different words with different meanings.

"Seceding" is the act of formally withdrawing from an association, allience, or UNION, that you voluntarily entered into.

A revolution is the (violent) overthrow of one government to be replaced by another.

Requiem æternam dona eis, Domine; In memoria æterna erit justus, ab auditione mala non timebit.

Beauseant!

76 posted on 02/18/2010 10:49:45 AM PST by Lancelot Jones (Non nobis, Domine, non nobis, sed nomini tuo da gloriam.)
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To: Bigun
Was he really? Or is it possible that hes was talking about the failed socialist revolutions which took place in Europe at that time?

Probably not. Lincoln's speech was January 12, 1848. The first of the revolutions that occured in Europe during the 1848-1852 time frame didn't start until March and weren't put down until after that.

77 posted on 02/18/2010 10:53:13 AM PST by Non-Sequitur
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To: Constitutionalist Conservative

Any group of people, or individuals for that matter, may choose with whom they affiliate. That is a “natural”- a God granted right. The principle thesis behind the formation of the United States was to help men preserve their God given freedoms.


78 posted on 02/18/2010 10:53:17 AM PST by mo
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To: stainlessbanner

Ping


79 posted on 02/18/2010 10:57:43 AM PST by EdReform (Oath Keepers - Guardians of the Republic - Honor your oath - Join us: www.oathkeepers.org)
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To: CodeToad
What legal doctrine would that be? Please be specific. Please also state the legal process by which a State may seceed from the United States and your legal reference for the process. You keep saying there is one, yet, you’ve never defined it.

My belief is that the process for leaving should be the same as the process for joining - with the approval of the other states as expressed through a majority vote in both houses of Congress. The process should be: 1) a state demonstrates that it's people want to leave the U.S.; 2) matters concerning debt, obligations, federal property, and the like are negotiated and a fair and equitable settlement is reached; 3) Congess votes to partition; 4) we wave bye-bye. And the idea is not new and it isn't mine. James Madison said that a fair and equitable separation requires the consent of both sides.

80 posted on 02/18/2010 10:59:08 AM PST by Non-Sequitur
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