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A Refutation Of Hume's Attack On The Principle Of Causality II
4/7/2008 | Laissez-Faire Capitalist

Posted on 04/07/2008 7:40:21 AM PDT by Laissez-faire capitalist

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To: All; snarks_when_bored
If, according to Hume, all knowledge comes from experience, and all knowledge exists as individual units of experience, when did Hume experience effect without cause, or (the example often given) an eight ball moving without the cue ball hitting it (or any outside cause not hitting it)? How then did he acquire knowledge that effect can occur without cause?

Further, what Empirical evidence did Hume give to support the contention that (for example) an eight ball can move absolutely without any outside cause?

21 posted on 04/07/2008 10:20:17 AM PDT by Laissez-faire capitalist (Keep working! Welfare cases and their liberal enablers are counting on you!)
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To: samtheman

ping


22 posted on 04/09/2008 8:26:36 AM PDT by kinsman redeemer (The real enemy seeks to devour what is good.)
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To: kinsman redeemer

Hume says that we cannot ever observe causation in any situation, and therefore cannot say that causation exists. He goes so far as to say the word cause is completely meaningless.

Rational thought depends entirely on one thought CAUSING the next thought. The thought of there being no observable causation CAUSES the thought of there actually being no causation.

Do to this simple fact, Hume’s argument is not even possible to make without assuming causation and therefore rational thought actually exist.

ZING!


23 posted on 06/03/2009 9:57:36 PM PDT by Frozen chicken
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