I really hate to rain on your parade here, because the ideas are, in essence, solid, but these are not very good refutations. Now, I don't support the labour theory of value, nor would I defend it - but these are just going to get eaten alive by Marxists, or so-called "heterodox" economics:
Refutation 1 is correct, but misapplied - "value" is only related to socially necessary labor; that is, a kind of "average" labor that society uses to produce a good. This is not a situation in which we are talking about a good, on the whole, and it does not apply here. What is extremely vexing about the LTV is that is hideously muddles micro and macroeconomic explanations for terms. This is one area where the traditional micro/macro distinction leads you to the wrong conclusions.
Refutations 2 and 3 is simply incorrect, once again because of the "socially necessary" caveat. If it takes "society", on average, one hour to, say, weave a bolt of cloth then that is the value of a bolt of cloth. If it takes ME two hours to weave that same bolt, that means nothing. Likewise, if I spend hours doing pointless work, that does not give the work value - since it is not socially necessary work.
Refutation 4 is also good - but, again, it misses the "socially necessary" aspect. Tied up in the concept is that of zero arbitrage; social necessity is a matter of classical equillibrium, and in equilibrium there can be no arbitrage.
Refutation 5 is incorrect for the same reasons 2 and 3 are - in addition the "value" of a product produced need not be tied to the wages paid. For instance, it is perfectly consistent with the LTV to have wage-differentiated workplaces.
Refutation 6 is good, but both ignores the fact that it could be applied equally to classical treatments, and that it ignores the marginality of work. For instance, we are only talking about value - this allows a kind of "equation" of goods based on value. For instance, lets talk about that bolt again. Say, because I am skilled, I can produced one bolt in a half hour. Thus, in an hour, I produce two units of value - and can then exchange them for other goods I desire. If I had to go make those goods myself, I would not be able to - or it would take much, much more time. The LTV is consistent with specialization, and the marginality of labor.
Refutation 7 and 8 try to use two different concepts of "value" in the same notion. You either get utility, or value - you can't have both.
Perhaps a better way to put it is that "value" is a kind of definition - like one foot, or one meter. What people like Smith, Ricardo, or Marx were saying is that goods have this property which they called "value" that was equal to the amount of socially necessary labor embodied in them. They weren't making an observation, or stating a theory - rather, they were saying that value IS that embodied labor, and then used it to try and explain the economy. The problem is that "value" has connotations, and means different things in different contexts. For instance, many of your criticisms implicitly assumed that you could use utility as another measure of value - well, you can't, because value is a definition. Maybe it was a bad thing to call it - say, call it "praxis" or "puisse" or something.
In the end, however, it's really just a different definition they've tried to apply, in order to explain how the economy works. We all know how their project turned out, but trying to refute it in such a way is not productive.
Now, if you'll excuse me, I need to go wash my hands. I feel dirty for having to say that.