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Chicory, we've discussed and corrected the Roman on I Timothy 3:15 (and other passages) view here on FR so many times that I've begun to repaste previous discussions. This is no fault of yours. You can find many if you do a google search. In the meantime, I hope this helps. .....Snip..... "3:15. The clearly stated purpose of these instructions is to inform the Ephesian congregation how people ought to conduct themselves in God’s household. "Again Paul used the analogy of the “household” (oikos) to refer to the church (ekklēsia; cf. v. 5). This merges into an architectural image involving the church as pillar and foundation of the truth. "The idea of the church as a “building” dedicated to the living God is a common one for Paul (cf. 1 Cor. 3:16–17; 2 Cor. 6:16; Eph. 2:20–22). "Some people teach that the church as the “foundation of the truth” is the source of God’s truth, that no one can know the truth unless he depends on the teaching of some organized church or church group. But Paul was simply affirming the crucial role of the universal church as the support and bulwark—not the source—of God’s truth. His words should not be stretched beyond this."

Yeah right. An invisible, disorganized, chaotic and scattered “church” led by men (all be they different men or women whatever the case may be) is somehow preferable?

No thanks. I’ll stick with the Fathers, Doctors and Saints of the visible One, Holy, Catholic and Apostolic Catholic Church founded by Jesus himself.

OK, I imagine that there is a Protestant explanation for how this reference to “Scripture,” which is written before some or all of the NT was written and certainly before it was compiled, covers the NT, but, to be honest, the discussions I am involved in here are multiplying, and my ability to explain (knowledge, time, etc.) is being strained, so this may be my last post on this subject. Please don’t take my limited abilities as evidence that the Church lacks explanatory force, simply that *I* am limited.