So, Popes prior to Vatican I weren't infallible when speaking ex cathedra, but Popes speaking ex cathedra post-Vatican I, are.
Such amazing faith in bureaucratic fiat.
You’re so out of your flipping league it’s disturbing.
The dogma was *defined* at Vatican I. Meaning, a concrete definition was written for something that had always been believed, assumed, and acted upon.
Who the flip doesn’t know that the Papacy considered itself infallible during the Middle Ages hundreds of years before Vatican I?? Are you telling me that your historical knowledge is THAT impoverished? What do you think got your Protty ancestors all in a tizzy for Pete’s sake?