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Taking his seat in the temple of God
triablogue ^ | December 10, 2014 | Steve Hayes

Posted on 06/21/2015 8:10:26 AM PDT by RnMomof7

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To: huldah1776
The word form is slightly different in the two passages:
Acts 21:21 apostasian ἀποστασίαν ; 2Thessalonians 2:3 apostasia ἀποστασία

Additionally, the Rheims bible changed the article from hē ἡ or The departure, to 'a revolt'.

21 posted on 06/21/2015 11:03:44 AM PDT by MHGinTN (Is it really all relative, Mister Einstein?)
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To: metmom; RnMomof7
>>Heck, THEY'RE even beginning to suspect it.<<

And it's only the beginning. It's going to be a rough road for Catholics.

22 posted on 06/21/2015 11:14:49 AM PDT by CynicalBear (For I decided to know nothing among you except Jesus)
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To: sasportas
You're cloying sarcasm side,

2Thess2: 1-8 Now, brothers, concerning the coming of our Lord Jesus Christ, and our gathering together to him, we ask you not to be quickly shaken in your mind, nor yet be troubled, either by spirit, or by word, or by letter as from us, saying that the day of Christ had come. Let no one deceive you in any way. For it will not be, unless the departure comes first, and the man of sin is revealed, the son of destruction, he who opposes and exalts himself against all that is called God or that is worshiped; so that he sits as God in the temple of God, setting himself up as God. 5 Don't you remember that, when I was still with you, I told you these things? Now you know what is restraining him, to the end that he may be revealed in his own season. For the mystery of lawlessness already works. Only there is one who restrains now, until he is taken out of the way. Then the lawless one will be revealed, whom the Lord will kill with the breath of his mouth, and destroy by the manifestation of his coming; [WEB]

There is a comma placed (yes, I know when the punctuations were added) between the clauses, telling readers these are two connected but distinct clauses for the same broader issue. The clause citing 'The Departure' is superior to the 'man of sin revealed'. we may make this discernment because Paul connects the removal of the restrainer to the revealing of the man of sin in the following verses. The Restrainer indwells The Church in ths Age, and when Christ gathers the wedding party the indwelling Spirit will be moved out of the way of the man of sin. The Holy Spirit indwelling believers will be ended, though His Spirit will still be around harvesting souls during the Tribulation to follow the snatching away of the Bride indwelt by His Spirit.

Scoff all you like. I have a few provisions you will be welcome to scavenge following the departure with My Lord's Bridal party. You will find them handy in the hellish environment His Bride will be taken away from.

23 posted on 06/21/2015 11:17:28 AM PDT by MHGinTN (Is it really all relative, Mister Einstein?)
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To: sasportas; MHGinTN
>>No commentary on this verse by anybody in church history, prior to the Rheims, understood “apostasia” to mean anything else.<<

Oh really?

646 apostasía (from 868 /aphístēmi, "leave, depart," which is derived from 575 /apó, "away from" and 2476 /histémi, "stand") – properly, departure (implying desertion); apostasy – literally, "a leaving, from a previous standing."[http://biblehub.com/greek/646.htm}

You post verse 4 as if it's tied to "apostasia". Verse 3 says this.

2 Thessalonians 2:3 Let no one in any way deceive you, for it will not come unless the apostasy comes first, and the man of lawlessness is revealed, the son of destruction,

That and in there shows it to be 2 separate and distinct happenings. Trying to tie the word "apostasia" to the man of lawlessness is totally wrong.

>>You don’t even have to be a scholar to see what the word meant.<<

Are you claiming to be a better Greek scholar than Strong as I showed above?

Also, please show where the term “the man of apostasy” is written in scripture.

24 posted on 06/21/2015 11:28:56 AM PDT by CynicalBear (For I decided to know nothing among you except Jesus)
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To: MHGinTN; huldah1776

Acts 21:21 was talking about a departure from the teaching of being circumcised.


25 posted on 06/21/2015 11:33:38 AM PDT by CynicalBear (For I decided to know nothing among you except Jesus)
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To: CynicalBear
Yep, 'apostasian' ἀποστασίαν
26 posted on 06/21/2015 11:45:48 AM PDT by MHGinTN (Is it really all relative, Mister Einstein?)
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To: MHGinTN
My apologies to FReepers who are concerned with what this thread is supposed to be about. I apologize for helping MHGinTN hijack it.

But to insert a pretrib rapture in 2 Thess. 2, is to read into scripture something that isn't there. Jesus set the bar back in Matt. 24, no pretrib rapture there, Paul is merely following Jesus in 2 Thess. 2.

I quote here one of the foremost scholars of ancient times was Irenaeus, I am convinced he knew Greek at least as well as MHGinTN... and the pretrib preachers he follows! He said:

"The apostle thus speaks in the second Epistle to the Thessalonians: 'Unless there shall come [apostasia] first, and the man of sin shall be revealed, the son of perdition, who opposeth and exalteth himself above all that is called God, or that is worshipped; so that he sitteth in the temple of God, showing himself as if he were God. The apostle therefore clearly points out his apostasy, and that he is lifted up above all that is called God, or that is worshipped... he will endeavor in a tyrannical manner to set himself forth as God."

27 posted on 06/21/2015 11:49:24 AM PDT by sasportas
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To: MHGinTN

Don’t know Greek, so need to ask if it an entirely different term or as different as happy is to happily? Just wondering, and if it is used in any other historic texts for context?


28 posted on 06/21/2015 11:56:17 AM PDT by huldah1776
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To: sasportas
Rev 3:7 "To the angel of the assembly in Philadelphia write: ... 10 Because you kept my command to endure, I also will keep you from the hour of testing, which is to come on the whole world, to test those who dwell on the earth.

They are told they will be kept from even the hour of the testing, not just the testing. The seven years of Tribulation are the 'hour of testing'.

Now back to our program, 'Taking his seat in the temple of Gpd' ...

29 posted on 06/21/2015 11:56:24 AM PDT by MHGinTN (Is it really all relative, Mister Einstein?)
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To: huldah1776

Nouns in Koine Greek derive from the verbs. The first few bibles had the definite article ‘the’ in front of the ‘apostasi’. so we know immediately this refers to a specific thing or event. When the word is changed along with the article to an indefinite article “a” the meaning is blurred out from the original intent. The use in Acts 21:21 refers to a process whereas in 2Thess2:3 it refers to a specific thing or event.


30 posted on 06/21/2015 12:01:16 PM PDT by MHGinTN (Is it really all relative, Mister Einstein?)
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To: CynicalBear

Yes, but it is a departure from teaching, so is the word “departure” used to translate the same Greek word? If so, then we are witnesses of a great departure from the teaching of Truth. In fact, today it is taught that there is no absolute truth bringing with it a hatred of The Truth and His followers of every nation, tribe, tongue, and people.


31 posted on 06/21/2015 12:02:44 PM PDT by huldah1776
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To: huldah1776

That is in fact an excellent notion. It can be valued as a teacher for our epoch. As used in 2Thess2:3 the meaning could be as you infer. However, we have the passages following that verse which point to the restrainer being removed. The Restrainer is the Holy Spirit Who indwells the Bride of Christ, The Church.


32 posted on 06/21/2015 12:06:52 PM PDT by MHGinTN (Is it really all relative, Mister Einstein?)
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To: CynicalBear

James Strong wrote his famous concordance in 1890, he thus could have been a pretribber, the influence of Darbyism was considerable by that time. Was he a pretribber, I don’t know, he may have been one of those who rejected Darby’s pretrib rapture, for all we know, many in England did.

At any rate, I rather doubt we can use his concordance as the last word on 2 Thess. 2:3. Like I said, the context of 2 Thess. 2 literally bristles with evidence as to what Paul meant. Not to mention men like Irenaeus, who knew Greek quite well, I’d say.

I think it’s folly to pit James Strong against men like Justin Martyr and Irenaeus. For all we know, were he to join this thread, we might find him siding with Irenaeus.


33 posted on 06/21/2015 12:07:31 PM PDT by sasportas
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To: sasportas
If Ephraem the Syrian (306 - 373AD) joined this thread, what do you think he would side with? ...

"For all the saints and elect of God are gathered prior to the tribulation that is to come, and are taken to the Lord lest they see the confusion that is to overwhelm the world because of our siin." ['On The Last Times, the Antichrist and the End of the World' Ephraem of Nisibis (Ephraem The Syrian)]

34 posted on 06/21/2015 12:15:39 PM PDT by MHGinTN (Is it really all relative, Mister Einstein?)
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To: MHGinTN
Because you kept my command to endure

You find that command in Matt. 24:13, the command to endure to the end. What end? The end the disciples asked him about in verse 3. The disciples there tied that "end," "the end of the world," or the end of the age, to Christ's 2nd coming. In answer to their question, so did Christ... throughout the discourse, including verse 13. The "end of the age" in his discourse, being "immediately after the tribulation of those days," verses 29-31.

Like I said in previous post, there is no pretrib rapture in Matt. 24, Paul merely follows Jesus in 2 Thess. 2.

35 posted on 06/21/2015 12:23:19 PM PDT by sasportas
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To: MHGinTN

CynicalBear wants to pit James Strong against Justin Martyr and Irenaeus, you want to pit Ephraem against Justin Martyr and Irenaeus. Ephraem is Pseudo-Ephraim, pseudo meaning false. The mass of historical evidence is against the Pretribs, neither Strong nor Pseudo-Ephraim can tip the balance.

I apologize again to FReepers for assisting the hijacking of this thread. I leave it to MHGinTN and CB to continue the hijacking. Later alligator.


36 posted on 06/21/2015 12:33:32 PM PDT by sasportas
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To: sasportas

Pseudo-Ephraim = Pseudo-Ephraem


37 posted on 06/21/2015 12:36:53 PM PDT by sasportas
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To: sasportas

How very specious of you. Is not the thread addressing ‘taking his seat in the temple of God’ as in the antichrist at mid tribulation? Yeah, don’t like seeing it in perspective eh?


38 posted on 06/21/2015 12:37:29 PM PDT by MHGinTN (Is it really all relative, Mister Einstein?)
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To: sasportas

What particular verses are the central focus of the thread, smarty? Who is served by trying to sow deceit?


39 posted on 06/21/2015 12:39:21 PM PDT by MHGinTN (Is it really all relative, Mister Einstein?)
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To: sasportas

I use dispensations as a tool to help organize reasoning. The Olivet6 Discourse to which you refer is given regarding the actual end times as spoken of by Daniel the Prophet. The discernment for this is found in what prompted Jesus to launch into the teaching of James, John, Andrew and Peter regarding the destruction of Jerusalem. As such we can reason that Jesus is address specifically the future of Jerusalem and Israel. The seven years of tribulation are all about God ending His dealing with sin and Israel. The Jews are even the ones evangelizing the world during that horrific period of Tribulation. Today, there is no differentiation between Jew and Gentile in the Church. During the dispensation of Tribulation the Jews specifically will be the evangelists.


40 posted on 06/21/2015 12:44:40 PM PDT by MHGinTN (Is it really all relative, Mister Einstein?)
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