Oh really?
646 apostasía (from 868 /aphístēmi, "leave, depart," which is derived from 575 /apó, "away from" and 2476 /histémi, "stand") – properly, departure (implying desertion); apostasy – literally, "a leaving, from a previous standing."[http://biblehub.com/greek/646.htm}
You post verse 4 as if it's tied to "apostasia". Verse 3 says this.
2 Thessalonians 2:3 Let no one in any way deceive you, for it will not come unless the apostasy comes first, and the man of lawlessness is revealed, the son of destruction,
That and in there shows it to be 2 separate and distinct happenings. Trying to tie the word "apostasia" to the man of lawlessness is totally wrong.
>>You don’t even have to be a scholar to see what the word meant.<<
Are you claiming to be a better Greek scholar than Strong as I showed above?
Also, please show where the term “the man of apostasy” is written in scripture.
James Strong wrote his famous concordance in 1890, he thus could have been a pretribber, the influence of Darbyism was considerable by that time. Was he a pretribber, I don’t know, he may have been one of those who rejected Darby’s pretrib rapture, for all we know, many in England did.
At any rate, I rather doubt we can use his concordance as the last word on 2 Thess. 2:3. Like I said, the context of 2 Thess. 2 literally bristles with evidence as to what Paul meant. Not to mention men like Irenaeus, who knew Greek quite well, I’d say.
I think it’s folly to pit James Strong against men like Justin Martyr and Irenaeus. For all we know, were he to join this thread, we might find him siding with Irenaeus.