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To: vladimir998; editor-surveyor; daniel1212; roamer_1; metmom
What Jew defined the Jewish canon? When did he do it? And why should Christians assume that someone who did not know Christ or who rejected Christ should be relied on for that canon?

Well this Jewish man of the house of David confirmed the understanding. I find His Words quite authoritative:

Luke chapter 28:

44 And he said to them, “These are my words that I spoke to you while I was still with you, that everything that is written about me in the law of Moses and the prophets and psalms must be fulfilled.” 45 Then he opened their minds to understand the scriptures, 46 and said to them, “Thus it is written that the Christ would suffer and would rise from the dead on the third day, 47 and repentance and the forgiveness of sins would be proclaimed in his name to all the nations, beginning from Jerusalem. 48 You are witnesses of these things. 49 And behold, I am sending out what was promised by my Father upon you, but you stay in the city until you are clothed with power from on high.”

845 posted on 10/07/2014 1:53:17 PM PDT by redleghunter (But let your word 'yes be 'yes,' and your 'no be 'no.' Anything more than this is from the evil one.)
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To: redleghunter

“Well this Jewish man of the house of David confirmed the understanding. I find His Words quite authoritative:”

His words are authoritative but do not agree with your apparent misunderstanding. Your mistake is a common enough one.


846 posted on 10/07/2014 1:54:58 PM PDT by vladimir998
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