Replies

Natural Law:

First of all, what is this in your response, “Catholics voted for abortion in 2008, as they normally do.”? And what does it have to do with me? I never said such a thing ... ever.

Second, in regard to “the actual meaning of ‘LOGOS’”, I have no idea what you are intending to say or criticize. And, by the way, this part is a cheap shot: “talisman-like powers.”

Let me use, again, a christological analogy. When God promised fallen mankind a Savior, who would Himself be God and Man in one person, did this not mean that the Savior, in order to be fully man would have to be born at a particular time, in a particular place, of a particular race who spoke a particular language or languages and had a particular culture, to a particular mother and be of a particular sex, either male or female? Yes or no? And are these particulars not the very substance of the Christian Church’s confession, confidence, and hope?

Similarly, if God spoke to man through the prophets and caused them to render such in writing - or will you argue that He did not do so? - did each not have to render such in a particular language? Yes or no?

Peace be with you as well.

"First of all, what is this in your response,"

Please see post #114.

"Second, in regard to “the actual meaning of ‘LOGOS’”, I have no idea what you are intending to say or criticize. And, by the way, this part is a cheap shot: “talisman-like powers.”"

The point I was trying to make was that the choice of the word LOGOS by St. John was not accidental and did not mean "word" or "words" like so many Protestant apologists wrongly imply. Synonymous with Jesus, Logos is a complete system of knowledge and governing principles. Scripture itself has no god-like powers or properties, that make it superior to Tradition. Both are sacred to the degree to which they reflect God. If the written medium were to be primary Jesus would have been an author instead of an authority and the Apostles would have been scribes and secretaries instead of evangelicals and teachers.

"Similarly, if God spoke to man through the prophets and caused them to render such in writing - or will you argue that He did not do so? - did each not have to render such in a particular language? Yes or no?"

That is a false or incomplete premise. Are you contending that God only speaks to us through the written word?