[Natural Law]

"Similarly, if God spoke to man through the prophets and caused them to render such in writing - or will you argue that He did not do so? - did each not have to render such in a particular language? Yes or no?"

That is a false or incomplete premise. Are you contending that God only speaks to us through the written word?

[Belteshazzar]

Natural Law, this is no trick question. Nor is it a false or incomplete premise. I am asking a simple question that would, if answered, at least establish some basis for discussion.

I am trying to find what we do and can agree on together. You seem to be acting like I am trying to lure you into a trap. I am not. If you find that you cannot answer or cannot trust the good faith of the one who asks - and has assured you of good faith - then I guess I know where this discussion is going ... nowhere. And if that is so, what is our purpose on the FR Religion forum? Argument for the sake of argument? I would hope not. That is not why I check in from time to time. If it is why you check in, OK, that is your privilege. And I will conduct myself accordingly.

Fair enough?