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To: HandyDandy
“Try the truth, in the first place. That way you won't have to cover up your lies with more lies . . . and so on and so on and so forth . . . Colonies are not the same as States.”

That is an interesting comment that, as an old country boy, I have no idea how to respond other than to refer the matter to our founding fathers.

“Action of Second Continental Congress, July 4, 1776, The unanimous Declaration of the thirteen United States of America.”

When in the Course of human events . . .”

Such has been the patient Sufferance of these Colonies; . . .”

. . . of an absolute Tyranny over these States.”

. . . the State remaining in the mean time exposed to all the Dangers . . .”

He has endeavoured to prevent the Population of these States; . . .”

For protecting them, by a mock Trial, from Punishment for any Murders which they should commit on the Inhabitants of these States;”

. . . so as to render it at once an Example and fit Instrument for introducing the same absolute Rule into these Colonies;”

We, therefore, the Representatives of the United States of America . . .”

by Authority of the good People of these Colonies, solemnly Publish and Declare, That these United Colonies are, and of Right ought to be, Free and Independent States . . .”

And so forth and so on.

It seems to me the founding fathers were using the terms colonies and states interchangeably. And by the close of business on July 4, 1776 the colonies were states.

And on that date all 13 of the states were slave states.

But if you have evidence that DoodleDawg and I are wrong about this let's see it.

366 posted on 06/20/2017 6:39:36 PM PDT by jeffersondem
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To: jeffersondem
Leastwise, we now have our timeline. Your cut-off for the existence of "colonies" is the end of business day July 4. 1776. Just prior to that, one could apply the term "colony" or "state" to those entities that where thenceforth only known by the term "states". What had been called the United Colonies, then and there, became the United States. At that point, those free and Independent states commenced drafting their individual constitutions. Every Northern state began writing the abolition of slavery into their state constitutions. These things don't happen overnight. No Southern state was writing the abolition of slavery into their respective constitutions. In point of fact, Massachusetts had declared its own independence from the British Monarch in May of 1776. Massachusetts then commenced hammering out its anti-slavery "state" constitution which went into effect in 1780.

For you to harp on bashing Northern slave states without even bothering to mention slavery in the South is most disingenuous. You are driven by hatred of the North, hatred of Lincoln and will twist and distort whatever facts in order to put the North in a bad light. Nobody is saying the northerners were saints. No one is saying the North became enlightened to the horrors of the peculiar institution in the South and decide to wage war to free the slaves. You are setting up a straw-man and then over-arguing it to unleash your bias.

Remember, for future reference, when the people of today discuss Colonies, they are talking about the "states" prior to Independence Day and we refer to them as "states" since Independence Day. At least that is how it works here in the States. Now please tell me what is the distinction you make between "northern states" and "original northern states". To be clear, and so forth and so on and forth and on.

367 posted on 06/20/2017 8:00:17 PM PDT by HandyDandy ("I reckon so. I guess we all died a little in that damn war.")
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