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To: Morris70

Personally, if he is a British Citizen and NOT an American Citizen, then my belief is that the First Amendment does not apply to him. He should seek redress of his grievances from his own country. Wait, he’s not welcomed there because of faking reports about British soldiers in Afghanistan.


9 posted on 12/22/2012 9:32:22 AM PST by Gaffer
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To: Gaffer

Justice Scalia would ask you, “how come the First Amendment refers to ‘people,’ instead of ‘citizens,’ then?”


12 posted on 12/22/2012 10:14:03 AM PST by 1rudeboy
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To: Gaffer

With all due respect, I believe there are no British Citizens. They are, rather, “Subjects of The Crown”. That would go a long way towards explaining the submissive attitude of Mr. Morgan, he is a subject. Our Forefathers shed blood, to lift that yoke from upon them. I truly think that the men of that era were “The Greatest Generation”, no disrespect to the World War II era Americans. Thank you.


33 posted on 12/22/2012 1:14:17 PM PST by jttpwalsh
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To: Gaffer
Personally, if he is a British Citizen and NOT an American Citizen, then my belief is that the First Amendment does not apply to him.

So, these are not God given rights that belong to all men?

36 posted on 12/22/2012 1:53:38 PM PST by Straight Vermonter (Posting from deep behind the Maple Curtain)
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