I don’t see how this ban can be upheld when you now have thousands of gays in CA who are and will remain legally married. Now, you do have discrimination. I dunno, what am I missing?
This is no different than any other law that is implemented and it has a precedent in the way that law has been changed before. Those contracts that fell under the old law remain valid but no more contracts of that type are granted. How can it be discrimination when no one is allowed to enter into that type of contract in this case a same sex marriage? It would be discrimination if some homosexuals were granted marriage licenses after the law changed and others were not. I hope that clears things up. Homosexuals also have an extremely high divorce rate in relationship to Heterosexuals so the issue will quickly become moot.
“A survey of legal divorce among homosexual couples in Sweden showed that. Gay male couples were 50% more likely to divorce within an eight-year period than were heterosexuals; and lesbian couples were 167% more likely to divorce than heterosexual couples.”
http://www.narth.com/docs/sweden.html
They were “married” before the constituion was changed, legally, by the people. Constituional changes are not retroactive...they can not change what happened in the past. I wish they could! Slavery would have disappeared from history!
What will happen is gays will use the married gay couples as an example of why all should be allowed to marry. That will work only if no one keeps track of the divorce statistics which will be very high.