This is no different than any other law that is implemented and it has a precedent in the way that law has been changed before. Those contracts that fell under the old law remain valid but no more contracts of that type are granted. How can it be discrimination when no one is allowed to enter into that type of contract in this case a same sex marriage? It would be discrimination if some homosexuals were granted marriage licenses after the law changed and others were not. I hope that clears things up. Homosexuals also have an extremely high divorce rate in relationship to Heterosexuals so the issue will quickly become moot.
“A survey of legal divorce among homosexual couples in Sweden showed that. Gay male couples were 50% more likely to divorce within an eight-year period than were heterosexuals; and lesbian couples were 167% more likely to divorce than heterosexual couples.”
http://www.narth.com/docs/sweden.html
Thanks for your reply. I’ve no doubt about the divorce rates you quote and suspect it’s one of the reasons many/most lawyers seem to be in favor of them being allowed to marry. ;)