In the previous chapter we looked at over 300 verses that say salvation is open to everyone. These verses use words like all, everyone, whoever, world, etc.
The same old tired misrepresentations of definite atonement. Exegesis has been provided for each of these. Does the author reference and refute these? No. This is either intellectually dishonest or the author is ignorant of the arguments. Either way, that renders the piece useless. Come on ftD, I know that you know the arguments much better than this. Please find pieces that provide honest, informed arguments. Here's a challenge: either provide yourself or find someone who handles John 6:35-65 in context. Now that would be interesting!
come on now!
As for Jn.6:35-65 see Vances work on it, he does deal with them.
Moreover, they really aren't that difficult.
Speaking of Romans 11:32, 1Tim.2:6, 2Pet.3:9, one writer notes
It takes an exegetical ingenuity which is something other than a learned virtusity to evactuate these texts of their obvious meaning. It takes an exegetical ingenuity verging on sophistry to deny their explict universality (Vernon C.Grounds, God's Universal Salvic Grace, p.27, in Grace Unlimited, Ed.Pinnock)
What I do not understand Rochester. If God really desires that all men everywhere with out exception be saved,why did He place some in a time and place where they could never hear and respond to the gospel? Why did he Harden some hearts and blind some minds?
They really need to consider that the word PAS does not mean all men without exception . That would make God a hapless god that lied in His word.
Is His arm too short to save?