[fortheDeclaration]

In the previous chapter we looked at over 300 verses that say salvation is open to everyone. These verses use words like all, everyone, whoever, world, etc. The same old tired misrepresentations of definite atonement. Exegesis has been provided for each of these. Does the author reference and refute these? No. This is either intellectually dishonest or the author is ignorant of the arguments. Either way, that renders the piece useless. Come on ftD, I know that you know the arguments much better than this. Please find pieces that provide honest, informed arguments. Here's a challenge: either provide yourself or find someone who handles John 6:35-65 in context. Now that would be interesting!

come on now!

As for Jn.6:35-65 see Vances work on it, he does deal with them.

Moreover, they really aren't that difficult.

Speaking of Romans 11:32, 1Tim.2:6, 2Pet.3:9, one writer notes

It takes an exegetical ingenuity which is something other than a learned virtusity to evactuate these texts of their obvious meaning. It takes an exegetical ingenuity verging on sophistry to deny their explict universality (Vernon C.Grounds, God's Universal Salvic Grace, p.27, in Grace Unlimited, Ed.Pinnock)

[RochesterFan]

As for Jn.6:35-65 see Vances work on it, he does deal with them.

I don't have Vance's work. Perhaps you could exerpt it. That would be an interesting read.

[RochesterFan]

It takes an exegetical ingenuity which is something other than a learned virtusity to evactuate these texts of their obvious meaning. It takes an exegetical ingenuity verging on sophistry to deny their explict universality (Vernon C.Grounds, God's Universal Salvic Grace, p.27, in Grace Unlimited, Ed.Pinnock)

This is simply bluster and ad hominem. I want to see analysis of the text in context.