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False Bibles, An Enemy of Soul Winning
FlamingTorch.org ^ | Unknown | Jack Hyles

Posted on 08/01/2003 11:51:43 PM PDT by fortheDeclaration

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To: ksen; drstevej; jude24

At great length, I explained to them that the KJV, NIV, and NASB all said the same thing, just in slightly different words.

This statement is false. They do not all say the same thing with different words.

jude24 is absolutely correct. You KJV-only types place a stumbling block in the path of believers who could use completely reliable newer translation. Shame on you.

21 posted on 08/02/2003 6:52:36 PM PDT by RochesterFan
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To: jude24
Says you. And I really don't care to hear the drivel about how the NASB takes out the blood in Col. 2:14 or whatever else bullcrap the KJV-legalists have to offer.

Since it looks like you are not in a frame of mind to discuss the issue rationally I will bid you good night.

There are different kinds of legalism besides "KJV legalism."

22 posted on 08/02/2003 6:57:00 PM PDT by ksen (HHD;FRM)
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To: RochesterFan
You KJV-only types place a stumbling block in the path of believers who could use completely reliable newer translation. Shame on you.

I don't think we've interacted enough for you to know what "type" I am. When you calm down and want to talk about it ping me.

23 posted on 08/02/2003 6:58:55 PM PDT by ksen (HHD;FRM)
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To: ksen
Tell ya what: show me a rational KJV-legalist argument, and it'd be the first one I've seen.
24 posted on 08/02/2003 6:59:23 PM PDT by jude24 ("Moods change. Truth does not. " - Dr. Ravi Zacharias)
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To: drstevej
I have no quarell with the KJV itself. I think it is a very good translation that has served the Church well. I simply reject the underlying assumptions of the TR-KJVonlyists as well as the sanctimonious attitude..

I agree....

My only point is to show that there are heretics that embrace the KJV, while the KJV-legalists claim that it is the modern translations that are the choices of heretics.

25 posted on 08/02/2003 7:02:11 PM PDT by jude24 ("Moods change. Truth does not. " - Dr. Ravi Zacharias)
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To: ksen
BTW: I am so harsh against the KJV-legalists because they deceived me.
26 posted on 08/02/2003 7:04:20 PM PDT by jude24 ("Moods change. Truth does not. " - Dr. Ravi Zacharias)
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To: ksen; jude24; drstevej
If I incorrectly included you with the folks who terrorize believers into abansoning reliable translations like the NAS and NIV with false arguments about "gnostic corruption", then you have my apology. Please understand that many of us have repeatedly refuted these ideas presented in this article. We have been branded heretics because we use translations based upon the totality of manuscript evidence. We all love the Word of God and want the entire body to read it and apply it to their lives many of us have seen the type of situation that jude24 mentioned.
27 posted on 08/02/2003 7:12:49 PM PDT by RochesterFan
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To: jude24; RochesterFan
Tell ya what: show me a rational KJV-legalist argument....

Since I am not a "KJV-legalist" it would not be fair for me to give their arguments since I might misconstrue something.

Instead I will tell you my stance on the subject. I hold to the KJV because I believe it is a faithful translation of the traditional Greek text as used throughout the Church's history. The Textus Receptus is the Greek text of the Reformation. It, in turn, was made in reliance upon the Byzantine Text readings (this may be an oversimplification, but what they hey, we're a message board not a theological journal) which were the majority text in the ancient churches.

I don't like Westcott and Hort based texts because it seems to me that in holding to them you would have to have a position that essentially says that God's word was lost to the church for at least 250-300 years and most likely lost for as long as 1,000 years. Westcott and Hort based their Greek text upon the Codices Sinaiticus and Vaticanus. These two texts came out of Alexandria and are notoriously untrustworthy.

I also don't trust the newer Greek text because of the people who made it. Westcott and Hort said that they were setting out to dethrone the TR. Therefore they rejected it, and most Byzantine readings, out of hand when they created their text.

I can go on, but this is probably enough to give you the gist of my position.

Have a great night, and I pray that Church goes well for you tomorrow.

28 posted on 08/02/2003 7:51:09 PM PDT by ksen (HHD;FRM)
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To: jude24
BTW: I am so harsh against the KJV-legalists because they deceived me.

Oh, the ones on this board? If not, then do you think it is right for you to vent at them?

29 posted on 08/02/2003 7:52:31 PM PDT by ksen (HHD;FRM)
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To: RochesterFan
If I incorrectly included you with the folks who terrorize believers into abansoning reliable translations like the NAS and NIV with false arguments about "gnostic corruption", then you have my apology. Please understand that many of us have repeatedly refuted these ideas presented in this article. We have been branded heretics because we use translations based upon the totality of manuscript evidence. We all love the Word of God and want the entire body to read it and apply it to their lives many of us have seen the type of situation that jude24 mentioned.

I think I answered this in my #28 which I pinged you to. If not then please let me know where I need to clarify my position. Thanks.

30 posted on 08/02/2003 7:54:19 PM PDT by ksen (HHD;FRM)
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To: ksen; jude24; RochesterFan
ksen, I respect your presentation. There is a gracious tone that is missing in so much of the KJVonly argumentation.

[1] You avoid the "perfect translation" nonsense.
[2] You state your reason for preference of the TR without classifying those who disagree as not "Bible Believers"

I respect your approach. May your tribe increase too!
31 posted on 08/02/2003 8:05:36 PM PDT by drstevej
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To: ksen
Westcott and Hort based their Greek text upon the Codices Sinaiticus and Vaticanus. These two texts came out of Alexandria and are notoriously untrustworthy.

Are they ipso facto untrustworthy because they came out of Alexandria?

(That is the argument of Riplinger and Ruckman, whom I trust less than Hillary Clinton....)

32 posted on 08/02/2003 8:07:01 PM PDT by jude24 ("Moods change. Truth does not. " - Dr. Ravi Zacharias)
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To: ksen
Oh, the ones on this board? If not, then do you think it is right for you to vent at them?

FTD and his cabal of KJV-legalists use the same, tired arguments that deceived me 8 years ago.

If you are not one of his number, I apologize. Your initial statement to me caused me to conclude otherwise.

I have no problem with the KJV, as far as it goes. It's a remarkably good translation. My quarrel is with those who would force Christians to use the KJV even when they struggle to understand it. I object to the slander of godly men by the KJV-legalist cabal. The historical revisionism rampant in the KJV-legalist position blows my mind.

33 posted on 08/02/2003 8:14:32 PM PDT by jude24 ("Moods change. Truth does not. " - Dr. Ravi Zacharias)
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To: ksen; drstevej; jude24
I don't like Westcott and Hort based texts because it seems to me that in holding to them you would have to have a position that essentially says that God's word was lost to the church for at least 250-300 years and most likely lost for as long as 1,000 years.

This is simply fallacious. The church was dispersed geographically, beginning with the first persecution in Jerusalem. God actually used this dispersion to preserve the text. No single group was ever in charge of all the manuscripts. Each local congregation had copies of the manuscripts. Realize that these are really fragile and were copied by hand. Manuscripts stored in dry places, like Alexandria, survived longer. Not only were the NT manuscripts copied into to the original Greek, they were translated into both Syriac and Latin. None of these were "lost to the church," they were actively used all along. Quotes from the early "Church Fathers" show this. All these features lead to manuscript families that show lineages. We have this vast abundance of manuscripts that actually gives us what we scientists call "oversampling". The variations can be traced by geography and the original wording deduced with great certainty. Most variants are simple things like changing nouns to pronouns. There are the usual variants that one would expect from copying - words inserted, repeated, or deleted. Often the scribe used wording from a familiar parallel passage. All this is easily deduced from the large number of manuscripts. No doctrine is compromised by these variants. The ESV. NAS, NIV, and KJV are reliable copies. A believer can be edified by any that he/she reads and studies.

34 posted on 08/02/2003 8:26:01 PM PDT by RochesterFan
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To: jude24
(That is the argument of Riplinger and Ruckman, whom I trust less than Hillary Clinton....)

I have not read anything by Riplinger or Ruckman so I can't comment on their arguments. However on Ruckman I can tell you that the seminary I attend is in Pensacola where Ruckman has his base and their is no love lost between my school and Ruckman.

I am basing my argument on what I've read from Edward F. Hills (a respectable Reformed scholar) and Theodore Letis.

35 posted on 08/02/2003 8:39:27 PM PDT by ksen (HHD;FRM)
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To: jude24
My quarrel is with those who would force Christians to use the KJV even when they struggle to understand it. I object to the slander of godly men by the KJV-legalist cabal. The historical revisionism rampant in the KJV-legalist position blows my mind.

Both sides of this argument should have quarrels with those who slander godly men, whether they stand by the KJV or not.

Also, I am aware that my side is a little free with the facts for which I apologize. The things I present I try to make sure of first.

36 posted on 08/02/2003 8:42:08 PM PDT by ksen (HHD;FRM)
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To: maestro
Thanks for the heads up!
37 posted on 08/02/2003 8:45:59 PM PDT by Alamo-Girl
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To: RochesterFan
This is simply fallacious.

Like I said, those were my opinions.

The church was dispersed geographically, beginning with the first persecution in Jerusalem. God actually used this dispersion to preserve the text. No single group was ever in charge of all the manuscripts.

I don't think I ever mentioned or even thought that a single group of people was ever in charge of all the manuscripts. In Old Testament times God had the Levitical priesthood. Those men were in charge of keeping the Old Testament. They, and the scribes that attached themselves to the Levites, faithfully preserved the Old Testament text.

Fast forward to New Testament times. The Christian church does not have an institutional priesthood like the Jewish people did. However, God made every believer a priest. It was the believers which God preserved His text through.

Each local congregation had copies of the manuscripts.

Exactly, and it is amazing that on three continents, Europe, Africa, and Asia, the majority of those manuscripts were Byzantine in type.

Realize that these are really fragile and were copied by hand. Manuscripts stored in dry places, like Alexandria, survived longer.

I don't think Alexandria is any drier than Antioch or the rest of the Holy Lands. Vaticanus was found in the basement of the Vatican, I don't trust the RCC and it's manuscript evidence especially after the Isidoran(Sp?) Decretals and the Donation of Constantine fiascoes. Sinaiticus was found in a trash can of an Orthodox church.

To me those don't sound like very reliable places to find the text upon which to base a whole new generation of Bibles.

Not only were the NT manuscripts copied into to the original Greek, they were translated into both Syriac and Latin.

True, and the oldest, the Peshitta, has Byzantine readings.

None of these were "lost to the church," they were actively used all along.

I said that I didn't believe that God's Word had ever been lost to His people.

Quotes from the early "Church Fathers" show this. All these features lead to manuscript families that show lineages. We have this vast abundance of manuscripts that actually gives us what we scientists call "oversampling". The variations can be traced by geography and the original wording deduced with great certainty. Most variants are simple things like changing nouns to pronouns. There are the usual variants that one would expect from copying - words inserted, repeated, or deleted. Often the scribe used wording from a familiar parallel passage.

Since I've never compared the variants I will take your word that most of them are relatively benign. But, that still leaves a minority that are not so benign, by your own admission.

All this is easily deduced from the large number of manuscripts. No doctrine is compromised by these variants. The ESV. NAS, NIV, and KJV are reliable copies. A believer can be edified by any that he/she reads and studies.

NO doctrine is compromised in Westcott and Hort's text?

38 posted on 08/02/2003 8:55:22 PM PDT by ksen (HHD;FRM)
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To: Gamecock
***So, would that be the KJB from 1611, including the Apocrypha?***

I wouldn't know about the KJB but the origional KJV of 1611 does have the Apocrypha.( Published by NELSON)

CAMBRIDGE also prints a KJV with Apocrypha.
39 posted on 08/02/2003 8:56:43 PM PDT by Ruy Dias de Bivar
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To: drstevej
I respect your approach.

Thanks drsteve, I appreciate that very much.

May your tribe increase too!

And yours as well. ;^)

40 posted on 08/02/2003 8:57:35 PM PDT by ksen (HHD;FRM)
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