But what is truth? - (hmmm... heard that before...) Is it your interpretation of a verse or is it mine? It is your sect's interpretation or my sect's interpretation? Not as clean and checklist checkoff simple as some would make it out to be.
We are in the year 2022. There is still debate as to the origins of which early church manuscripts, were the most accurate. Example:
https://www.ancient-hebrew.org/studies-nt/greek-and-aramaic-manuscripts-of-the-new-testament.htm
Comparing the Greek and Aramaic New Testaments
Matthew 19:24 (a camel or rope?)
Greek Translation (KJV): "And again I say unto you, It is easier for a camel to go through the eye of a needle, than for a rich man to enter into the kingdom of God."
Aramaic text: "And again I say to you, that it is easier for a rope to enter into the eye of a needle than for a rich man to enter into the kingdom of God."
I think the “truth” the early church fathers spoke of is the truth of who God is, (the Deity of Jesus and God’s plan of salvation for us). Of that there can really be no debate - Jesus is Lord of all or He is not Lord at all.
Watch the 2018 movie/documentary I posted. Lots of good preaching and teaching at oneplace.com too.
Eye of the needle refers to the sheep gate, 1 of 12 gates in the wall around Jerusalem, which was only big enough for sheep. To get a camel through required ropes around the camel and many people pushing and pulling. I learned about this from John MacArthur who imho is the best modern day preacher / teacher at oneplace.com which also has many others who are also on the link I provided. May God richly bless you!
“Greek Translation (KJV): “And again I say unto you, It is easier for a camel to go through the eye of a needle, than for a rich man to enter into the kingdom of God.”
Aramaic text: “And again I say to you, that it is easier for a rope to enter into the eye of a needle than for a rich man to enter into the kingdom of God.”
You’re conflating translational issues with textual issues. The KJV is not a Greek translation, it is an English translation from Greek manuscripts. The Diatessaron was an Aramaic translation of something compiled as a harmony or paraphrase of the 4 Gospels. We have no idea what texts the Aramaic Diatessaron were based on. There are no Greek manuscripts which read as do the Aramaic texts for the verse you cite. The Diatessaron was written (compiled) by Tatian sometime in the 2nd century.
...easier for a rope ...???
Not on page 36 here
http://buffaloriverforge.com/peshitta/NT%20Peshitta%207th%20Ed%20Plain%20Text%20Unnoted.pdf