Secondly, Greek was used for the NT but that doesn’t make it a holy language and since Masoretic Text, Aramaic Hebrew, and Paleo Hebrew werent used on the two tablets, how can they be considered holy languages? The holy language would be on the two tablets.
It stands to reason that a continuity would be established and that the Torah written by Moses with God giving it to him would be written in the same language.
Or does any seriously think Moses was learned in Masoretic Text, Aramaic Hebrew or Paleo Hebrew way back then. I mean, seriously...
...and Paleo Hebrew werent used on the two tablets...
Really? Show us.