Posted on 01/12/2020 4:22:11 PM PST by ebb tide
Edited on 01/12/2020 7:10:50 PM PST by Admin Moderator. [history]
Define earliest years.
No, already well established by the beginning of the 4th century as evidenced by the Council of Elvira. It should be kept in mind that in regard to the discipline of priestly celibacy, Elvira did not invent anything new. Such an attempt without prior precedent would have been impossible, especially since it was only a local council. But it is typical of the legalism of Protestantism that they would discount the existence of a church teaching or practice until they can find an official declaration.
Your post 55...I’m pretty sure people all over this thread are clutching their pearls and grasping the Rosary beads...
TRUTH hurts..sometimes..
Actually it was well established by the time Paul wrote his second Epistle to Timothy. It was called APOSTACY, and it had gained a foothold in the church, with people following ANOTHER GOSPEL. Of the Law and WORKS for salvation, instead of the Gospel that was given TO Paul BY the RISEN CHRIST, which was the GOSPEL OF THE GRACE OF GOD, whereby salvation was given to believers PURELY by the Grace of God, NOT of works, lest any man should boast.
Some Catholic scholars, such as Jesuits Peter Fink and George T. Dennis of Catholic University of America, have argued that we cannot know if priests in early Christianity practised sexual abstinence. Dennis says “there is simply no clear evidence of a general tradition or practice, much less of an obligation, of priestly celibacy-continence before the beginning of the fourth century.https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Clerical_celibacy_in_the_Catholic_Church
Jesuits and heretics, including Bergoglio, are now synonymous.
Is this in OMCET?
Is this the guy who can’t spell eagle one?
I spelled it that way for a reason.
And Luther tossed out books of the Bible for a reason: to sin boldly.
Is there concrete evidence? No. But the first evidence we do have when Christianity was legalized in the 4th century is that it was already a well established practice. As such, the practice of priestly continence must have gone back at least a century earlier to the 3rd century, if not further. But at this early date, when Christianity was illegal and there were no mechanisms for imposing such a novelty throughout the church, it is hard to see how such a practice could have developed and spread if it were not something that was accepted from the beginning.
Conversely, there is no clear evidence that priests in the early church did not practice priestly continence as they latter did. I would, however, point out the dialogue between Jesus and Peter:
Then Peter said, “We have given up our possessions and followed you.” [Jesus] said to them, “Amen, I say to you, there is no one who has given up house or wife or brothers or parents or children for the sake of the kingdom of God who will not receive [back] an overabundant return in this present age and eternal life in the age to come.” (Luke 18:28-30)Notice that when Peter says they have given up their possessions and followed Jesus that Jesus include giving up one's wife. Does this prove that Peter did so? No, but it does strongly hint at it.
In any case, it must be admitted that the practice dates back to at least the Patristic period, and was not an invention of the Middle Ages, as it is often claimed.
Going down swinging I see.
so Jesus was condoning divorce?
The words are our Lord’s. But you do know the difference between marital continence in which remained married but refrain from marital relations, and divorce, don’t you?
you can read Jesus’ mind over 2,000 years ago. Impressive
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