Posted on 12/27/2017 9:26:15 AM PST by Salvation
Nativity with Saints Bernard and Thomas Aquinas, by Francesco di Giorgio Martini
During Christmas week we do well to ponder certain questions about the Incarnation and birth of our Lord. The questions are taken from St. Thomas Aquinas’s Summa Theologica. St. Thomas’s answers are presented in italics, while my inferior commentary appears in red text.
Whether Christ was born at a fitting time? (Summa Theologica III, q. 35, art. 8)
There is this difference between Christ and other men, that, whereas they are born subject to the restrictions of time, Christ, as Lord and Maker of all time, chose a time in which to be born, just as He chose a mother and a birthplace. And since “what is of God is well ordered” and becomingly arranged, it follows that Christ was born at a most fitting time.
This argument is based on the authority and sovereignty of God. Simply put, God was free to choose a time; whatever God does is properly ordered and best, thus the time chosen by God was most fitting.
Moreover, at that time, when the whole world lived under one ruler, peace abounded on the earth. Therefore, it was a fitting time for the birth of Christ, for “He is our peace, who hath made both one,” as it is written (Ephesians 2:14). Wherefore Jerome says on Isaiah 2:4: “If we search the page of ancient history, we shall find that throughout the whole world there was discord until the twenty-eighth year of Augustus Caesar: but when our Lord was born, all war ceased”; according to Isaiah 2:4: “Nation shall not lift up sword against nation.”
The claim made that all was at peace at that time is rather sweeping and bold. Does St. Thomas mean that there was peace everywhere, even within households? We need not interpret it in such absolute terms. Instead, the claim can be understood more generally to mean that there were no known military campaigns underway or necessary at the time. During the roughly 200-year Pax Romana (27 B.C. – 180 A.D.) it is not that there were no threats to peace and no civil disturbances anywhere in the Roman Empire.
Again, it was fitting that Christ should be born while the world was governed by one ruler, because “He came to gather His own [Vulgate: ‘the children of God’] together in one” (John 11:52), that there might be “one fold and one shepherd” (John 10:16).
This is another surprising and sweeping claim, at least to modern ears. We tend to think of “one shepherd” as a reference to a religious leader, e.g., the Pope. Remember, though that today’s sharp distinction between secular and sacred leaders was largely unknown in the Middle Ages and earlier; back then, faith and governance were quite intertwined. Further, in saying that “the world” was governed by one ruler, St. Thomas has in mind the Roman Empire. He does not use “world” in a literal and absolute sense, but rather a large section of the known world.
Whether Christ should have been born in Bethlehem? (Summa Theologica III, q. 35, art. 7)
It is written (Micah 5:2): “And thou, Bethlehem, Ephrata … out of thee shall He come forth unto Me, that is to be the ruler in Israel.”
Christ willed to be born in Bethlehem for two reasons. First, because “He was made … of the seed of David according to the flesh,” as it is written (Romans 1:3); to whom also was a special promise made concerning Christ; according to 2 Samuel 23:1: “The man to whom it was appointed concerning the Christ of the God of Jacob … said.” Therefore, He willed to be born at Bethlehem, where David was born, in order that by the very birthplace the promise made to David might be shown to be fulfilled. The Evangelist points this out by saying: “Because He was of the house and of the family of David.” Secondly, because, as Gregory says (Hom. viii in Evang.): “Bethlehem is interpreted ‘the house of bread.’ It is Christ Himself who said, ‘I am the living Bread which came down from heaven.’”
Whether Christ’s birth should have been made known to all? (Summa Theologica III, q. 36, art. 1)
Our modern egalitarian notions demand that the answer here be yes, but St. Thomas says no. He does so for three reasons, each of which amounts to the argument that telling everyone about the birth of Christ and who exactly He was would have short-circuited or ended prematurely some important events and truths that save us.
It was unfitting that Christ’s birth should be made known to all men without distinction. First, because this would have been a hindrance to the redemption of man, which was accomplished by means of the Cross; for, as it is written (1 Corinthians 2:8): “If they had known it, they would never have crucified the Lord of glory.”
This is a daring claim: St. Thomas says that some ignorance was necessary to permit the cross (by which we are saved) to be applied.
Secondly, because this would have lessened the merit of faith, which He came to offer men as the way to righteousness. according to Romans 3:22: “The justice of God by faith of Jesus Christ.” For if, when Christ was born, His birth had been made known to all by evident signs, the very nature of faith would have been destroyed, since it is “the evidence of things that appear not,” as stated, Hebrews 11:1.
Saving faith would have been jettisoned because faith is not needed for things that are evident.
Thirdly, because thus the reality of His human nature would have come into doubt. Whence Augustine says (Ep. ad Volusianum cxxxvii): “If He had not passed through the different stages of age from babyhood to youth, had neither eaten nor slept, would He not have strengthened an erroneous opinion, and made it impossible for us to believe that He had become true man? And while He is doing all things wondrously, would He have taken away that which He accomplished in mercy?”
If the whole world had known from the start that Jesus was Messiah and Lord, He could never have lived an ordinary life in Nazareth, laboring and living among us. But these ordinary years were important indicators of His coming and living as true man.
Whether those to whom Christ’s birth was made known were suitably chosen? (Summa Theologica III, q. 36, art. 3)
Salvation, which was to be accomplished by Christ, concerns all sorts and conditions of me: because, as it is written (Colossians 3:11), in Christ “there is neither male nor female, [These words are in reality from Galatians 3:28] neither Gentile nor Jew … bond nor free,” and so forth. And in order that this might be foreshadowed in Christ’s birth, He was made known to men of all conditions. Because, as Augustine says in a sermon on the Epiphany (32 de Temp.), “the shepherds were Israelites, the Magi were Gentiles. The former were nigh to Him, the latter far from Him. Both hastened to Him together as to the cornerstone.” There was also another point of contrast: for the Magi were wise and powerful; the shepherds simple and lowly. He was also made known to the righteous as Simeon and Anna; and to sinners, as the Magi. He was made known both to men, and to women—namely, to Anna—so as to show no condition of men to be excluded from Christ’s redemption.
In effect, St. Thomas teaches here of the catholicity (universality) of the Church.
Whether Christ’s birth should have been manifested by means of the angels and the star? (Summa Theologica III, q. 36, art. 5)
Yes, it is suitable, because when teaching we begin by moving from what is known to what is unknown. Different audiences (Jews and Gentiles) were called, so different approaches made sense, as each group was differently endowed with knowledge.
As knowledge is imparted through a syllogism from something which we know better, so knowledge given by signs must be conveyed through things which are familiar to those to whom the knowledge is imparted. Now, it is clear that the righteous have, through the spirit of prophecy, a certain familiarity with the interior instinct of the Holy Ghost, and are wont to be taught thereby, without the guidance of sensible signs. Whereas others, occupied with material things, are led through the domain of the senses to that of the intellect. The Jews, however, were accustomed to receive Divine answers through the angels …. And the Gentiles, especially the astrologers, were wont to observe the course of the stars. And therefore Christ’s birth was made known to the righteous, viz. Simeon and Anna, by the interior instinct of the Holy Ghost, according to Luke 2:26: “He had received an answer from the Holy Ghost that he should not see death before he had seen the Christ of the Lord.” But to the shepherds and Magi, as being occupied with material things, Christ’s birth was made known by means of visible apparitions. And since this birth was not only earthly, but also, in a way, heavenly, to both (shepherds and Magi) it is revealed through heavenly signs: for, as Augustine says in a sermon on the Epiphany (cciv): “The angels inhabit, and the stars adorn, the heavens: by both, therefore, do the ‘heavens show forth the glory of God.’” Moreover, it was not without reason that Christ’s birth was made known, by means of angels, to the shepherds, who, being Jews, were accustomed to frequent apparitions of the angels: whereas it was revealed by means of a star to the Magi, who were wont to consider the heavenly bodies. Because, as Chrysostom says (Hom. vi in Matth.): “Our Lord deigned to call them through things to which they were accustomed.”
Tomorrow we will consider several more questions related to the star and the magi.
Monsignor Pope Ping!
They were no ordinary shepherds. They were Levites that kept the sacrificial lambs for use in the Temple.
In order to assure they were preserved "without blemish" the shepherds would wrap them in "swaddling clothes."
Thus the shepherds were able to readily recognize "The Lamb of God." wrapped in swaddling clothes.
Also, as I have been reciting Luke Chapter 2 every Christmas Eve since 1980, it occurred to me about 15 years ago that the manger is mentioned three times in the KJV of Luke Chapter 2.
Jesus also told Peter three times in John 21:17 to "Feed my sheep"
I then realized that mentioning the manger was Christ as the Bread of Life as "Feed My Sheep."
If there is one thing about Our Heavenly Father, it is that He uses symbolism A LOT!
The other thing about Our Father is that He has fixed it so there is always more intricate marvels to discover in His Word!
Did Adam have a belly button?
““He was made … of the seed of David according to the flesh,”
This puzzles me. St. Joseph was of the line of David, but if Jesus was conceived by the power of the Holy Spirit, how is Jesus of the seed of David?
Or was Adam created a child or a grown man? And if God can create a human as a fully matured human then he could certainly create a universe that was fully matured.
Wasn’t Mary also of the line of David? I think I read that somewhere.
A quick DDG scan seems to show that it is in dispute.
It would answer my question, though.
If you’ll notice the genealogies of Jesus in Matthew and Luke are different. Why? Luke had access to the living Mary who provided Luke with the genealogy of *her* roots which traced back to King David. Matthew’s gospel (which was written for the Jews) has the traditional genealogy of the paternal line of Joseph back to King David.
If Joseph was not Jesus’ physical father, he was still the earthly father in the line of David which is how the Jews counted the line of succession. Mary, the physical mother, also traces back to David so then there is no argument as to whether Jesus had royal blood lines. Both my blood (Mary) and by title (Joseph), he was the descendant of David, thus fulfilling prophecy.
“Luke had access to the living Mary who provided Luke with the genealogy of *her* roots which traced back to King David.”
I just skimmed an article that claimed there is no concrete indication in Luke that the lineage in question is Mary’s and not Jesus’s.
In Joseph's (the legal) side, he was descended through David's son Solomon; on Mary's side, he was descended through another of David's sons, Nathan: not Nathan the prophet, but David and Bathsheba's third (living) son (after their first infant that died unnamed) -- probably named by Bathsheba in honor of the prophet Nathan.
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Nathan_(son_of_David)
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If it is Mary’s lineage, it *has* to also be Jesus’ lineage. But it’s not Joseph’s lineage.
Mary followed the Christian movement after her Son’s (physical) death and made herself available to Jesus’ disciples. Luke, a physician and historian in documenting the life of Jesus and the early Christian church (which we call Luke and Acts) was likely to have encountered Mary and asked her about Jesus’ life.
If you’ll notice, there are anecdotes in Luke that probably only Mary would know first-hand. It’s fairly easy to connect Luke’s gospel with access to Mary’s accounts of what she heard and saw regarding Jesus’ life.
Both Mary and Joseph descended from David’s line.
Mary’s lineage is detailed in Luke 3: 23-38.
Joseph’s lineage is detailed in Matthew 1: 1-17
Per the MacArthur Study Bible Notes: Luke 3:23–38 Luke’s genealogy moves backward, from Jesus to Adam; Matthew’s moves forward, from Abraham to Joseph. Luke’s entire section from Joseph to David differs starkly from that given by Matthew. The two genealogies are easily reconciled if Luke’s is seen as Mary’s genealogy, and Matthew’s version represents Joseph’s. Thus the royal line is passed through Jesus’ legal father, and his physical descent from David is established by Mary’s lineage. Luke, unlike Matthew (see note on Matt. 1:3), includes no women in his genealogy—even Mary herself. Joseph was “the son of Heli” by marriage (Heli having no sons of his own), and thus is named here in Luke 3:23 as the representative of Mary’s generation.
Sorry for the above incomplete post. Let’s try this again.
Both Mary and Joseph descended from David’s line.
Mary’s lineage is detailed in Luke 3: 23-38.
Joseph’s lineage is detailed in Matthew 1: 1-17
Per the MacArthur Study Bible Notes: Luke 3:23–38 Luke’s genealogy moves backward, from Jesus to Adam; Matthew’s moves forward, from Abraham to Joseph. Luke’s entire section from Joseph to David differs starkly from that given by Matthew. The two genealogies are easily reconciled if Luke’s is seen as Mary’s genealogy, and Matthew’s version represents Joseph’s. Thus the royal line is passed through Jesus’ legal father, and his physical descent from David is established by Mary’s lineage. Luke, unlike Matthew (see note on Matt. 1:3), includes no women in his genealogy—even Mary herself. Joseph was “the son of Heli” by marriage (Heli having no sons of his own), and thus is named here in Luke 3:23 as the representative of Mary’s generation.
If there is one thing about Our Heavenly Father, it is that He uses symbolism A LOT!
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
The OT is a prediction of the events that took place in the NT.
The NT seems to be the OT with some refinements
“was likely to have”
Well, “likely to” is only “likely to.” It leaves me wanting more.
Inimicitias ponam inter te et mulierem,
et semen tuum et semen illius:
ipsa conteret caput tuum,
et tu insidiaberis calcaneo ejus.
“Semen” is usually translated as offspring but KJV says Gen. 3: 15 And I will put enmity between thee and the woman, and between thy seed and her seed; it shall bruise thy head, and thou shalt bruise his heel.
The emnity was between the “seed” of eve = Jesus and the devil. Mary was/is the new Eve.
“and His genetic or natural genealogy via Mary in Luke 3.”
Could you point me to where it says that this is Mary’s lineage?
Interesting, but I don’t see how it answers my question.
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