"Palestinians" did not exist in the 19th century. This is anti-Semite propaganda.
http://www.britannica.com/EBchecked/topic/439645/Palestine
The word Palestine derives from Philistia, —snip— The name was revived by the Romans in the 2nd century ad in “Syria Palaestina,” —snip— and made its way thence into Arabic, where it has been used to describe the region at least since the early Islamic era.
—snip—
The name Palestine has long been in popular use as a general term to denote a traditional region, but this usage does not imply precise boundaries.
Thanks for inspiring a brief history lesson.
O2
A ‘Palestinian’ in the 19th century was understood to be a Jew unless specified otherwise. They would have been known as ‘Arab Christians’ in any case.
“”Palestinians” did not exist in the 19th century. This is anti-Semite propaganda.”
Nonsense. Junipero Serra, who died in 1784 - before there the ratification of the U.S. Constitution, was born in Spain and died in Mexico (now California, U.S.A.). He’ll still be called an American saint - and some people will mean that as if the U.S.A. existed in California at the time!
Palestine was a common term in the mid-19th century for there was no Israel: https://books.google.com/books?id=i3NTAAAAYAAJ&printsec=frontcover&dq=palestine&hl=en&sa=X&ei=07lXVbujPMmGsAXhh4GwBg&ved=0CDkQ6AEwBA#v=onepage&q=palestine&f=false
“Palestinian” maybe somewhat anachronistic, but so is “American” in a number of cases.