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Does the Bible really teach that premarital sex is wrong?
Answering Protestants ^ | 4 June 2014 | Matthew Olson

Posted on 06/04/2014 10:18:03 AM PDT by matthewrobertolson

Does the Bible really teach that premarital sex is wrong? (Of course it does! But with Sola Scriptura, that might be unclear!)

http://youtube.com/watch?v=PsHMNPyI7iI

(Alternate link, via Vimeo.)

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TRANSCRIPT ———————-

Does the Bible really teach that premarital sex is wrong? Well, as a Catholic, I know that it does. So, I suppose the real question should be: can a Protestant reasonably think that premarital sex is okay? I think that they can. And here's why.

When the Bible condemns "fornication", the Greek word porneia is used. It is an all-encompassing word for sexual immorality, and this can make things unclear to a Protestant. Take Hebrews 13:4, for example: it uses the Greek word moichos to condemn adultery. That's very clear language. But, then, it uses porneia for fornication. So, the verse can, potentially, be seen as unclear on the latter.

Now, probably the most convincing passage against premarital sex is in 1 Corinthians 6. In this passage, "sexual perversion" is clearly banned. But again, that could be unclear, as "sexual perversion" can even occur within marriage. The thing here against becoming one with prostitutes offers what is probably the best argument. But even that, I think, could be seen as unclear. Paul could easily be seen as referring to literal prostitutes only. Obviously, should an otherwise-devout Christian have sexual relations with a current prostitute, that could cause grave scandal.

And, as far as I know, in every case of premarital sex in the Bible, there is no clear divine punishment for the sexual act. The only obvious penalty is in the realm of financial compensation. Even the Song of Solomon does not explicitly refer only to acts within marriage. In fact, in it, the lovers are separate. They don't seem to live together, and there's evidence that could be understood to mean that they weren't even married (see 8:8, for example). And, judging from Scripture alone, as long as lovers intend to get married someday, their acts together aren't always necessarily bad (see Exodus 22:16, for example).

To someone raised in the Catholic Tradition on this issue -- including many Protestants who have borrowed the Church's ancient teaching on this -- these verses are clear. But to a Sola Scriptura Protestant, who demands formal sufficiency of Scripture, this wiggle-room can shake their world.

Catholics can say, "Well, the Bible is only materially sufficient" -- meaning that, well, while the Bible implicitly or explicitly references every doctrine and dogma, you must still have the Church to interpret it, because the Church is the "pillar and support of the truth" (1 Timothy 3:15). But Protestants don't have that luxury. Formal sufficiency demands clarity, and when clarity is not there (as is frequently the case), questions like this arise.

So, in conclusion, to a Catholic, this is clear. But to a Protestant, not so much.


TOPICS: Apologetics; Catholic; General Discusssion; Moral Issues
KEYWORDS: abortion; bible; catholic; celebratesin; church; cultureofcorruption; culturewar; hedonism; homosexualagenda; ifitfeelsgooddohim; jesus; sexpositiveagenda; sexualrevolution2; smashthepatriarchy; waronmarriage
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1 posted on 06/04/2014 10:18:03 AM PDT by matthewrobertolson
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To: matthewrobertolson

DICTIONARY DEFINITION OF FORNICATION:

Sexual intercourse between people not married to each other.

What the Bible teaches about fornication:

“Flee fornication. Every sin that a man doeth is without the body; but he that committeth fornication sinneth against his own body.” ( 1 Corinthians 6:18)

“Or do you not know that the unrighteous will not inherit the kingdom of God? Do not be deceived; neither fornicators, nor idolaters, nor adulterers, nor effeminate, nor homosexuals,” (1 Corinthians 6:9)


2 posted on 06/04/2014 10:21:26 AM PDT by SeekAndFind
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To: SeekAndFind

That’s addressed. Listen to the video/read the transcript.


3 posted on 06/04/2014 10:24:04 AM PDT by matthewrobertolson
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To: matthewrobertolson

If, as you say, the Bible uses “porneia” for fornication, and porneia is condemned, doesn’t that settle the matter?


4 posted on 06/04/2014 10:24:21 AM PDT by Steve_Seattle
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To: matthewrobertolson
Does the Bible really teach that premarital sex is wrong? Well, as a Catholic, I know that it does.

Well, there ya go! No need to discuss. I agree.
5 posted on 06/04/2014 10:25:49 AM PDT by Resettozero
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To: matthewrobertolson

Well,my Protestant upbringing never allowed for premarital sex. Seems plain as day in the Bible.


6 posted on 06/04/2014 10:26:09 AM PDT by oldtech
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To: matthewrobertolson
and this can make things unclear to a Protestant.

What an insulting, offensive, stupid piece of garbage you have posted.

7 posted on 06/04/2014 10:26:27 AM PDT by DManA
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To: matthewrobertolson

The answer is given simply by the question itself.....it’s presented in the negative...just as satan said to Eve in the garden. ...to create doubt of who God is and what He clearly has spoken.


8 posted on 06/04/2014 10:27:47 AM PDT by caww
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To: matthewrobertolson

The answer is given simply by the question itself.....it’s presented in the negative...just as satan said to Eve in the garden. ...to create doubt of who God is and what He clearly has spoken.


9 posted on 06/04/2014 10:27:47 AM PDT by caww
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To: matthewrobertolson
The only Sola Scriptura Protestant who would find it murky, would be one who was looking for an excuse to do what they had decided to do anyway.

This is a straw man argument. No true, born again, bible believing Christian would ever make that argument. But a lot of progressive Christians would bend over backward to prove your point.

10 posted on 06/04/2014 10:28:39 AM PDT by wbarmy (I chose to be a sheepdog once I saw what happens to the sheep.)
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To: Steve_Seattle
Porneia has many meanings. I there refer to where translators typically translate it as "fornication".
11 posted on 06/04/2014 10:29:39 AM PDT by matthewrobertolson
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To: matthewrobertolson

“you must still have the Church to interpret it”

No, no you do not. You first have to define marriage. God defines it as one man and one woman. Now you can use that definition where marriage is talked about. By the definition of 1 Cor 7:2, ANY sex outside of marriage is sexual immorality. All the versions I looked at, including the Catholic Bible say this.

“But because of the temptation to sexual immorality, each man should have his own wife and each woman her own husband.” — 1 Corinthians 7:2


12 posted on 06/04/2014 10:31:18 AM PDT by sigzero
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To: DManA
"What an insulting, offensive, stupid piece of garbage you have posted."

Couldn't have said it better myself.

13 posted on 06/04/2014 10:33:12 AM PDT by Dutchboy88
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To: matthewrobertolson

The Sacred Scriptures themselves testify clearly that the Church will be given the gift to interpret and apply Scriptures in a manner that accords with the righteousness bestowed by grace alone through faith. They are replete with references to husband and wife becoming one in the context of marriage and the Church. This is the optimal condition for man to be fruitful and multiply, in addition to receiving the eternal bliss for which all of mankind was created in the first place.

To take the phrase “Sola Scriptura” to the extreme you have is to behave like the very Protestants you aim to contest. Don’t we have bigger fish to fry? If we’re going to admonish Protestants, steer them toward the comfort gained in the cross hidden in the Sacraments, yet real and true. I sense, however, the aim is not to admonish in love, but to puff ourselves up as better teachers; better Christians. Feel free to invite the hate, but that is not why the Sacred Scriptures were inspired and delivered to poor sinners.


14 posted on 06/04/2014 10:34:27 AM PDT by Fester Chugabrew
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To: SeekAndFind

Not sure I understand what you are trying to prove. Is it that the protestant tenet of scriptural sufficiency is wrong or that Protestants are fornicating sinners? It seems a strange argument that to prove that your Catholic-ness is morally superior to my Presbyterianism you must make ad hominem attacks based on fractured translations of ancient Greek and Latin. It strikes me as splitting hairs and also calls to mind the scripture about removing the log from your own eye before pointing out the speck in another’s.

Do you really believe, that upon ascending to heaven, there is an EZ Pass lane for Catholics? Or, as Christ himself declared, belief in Him is the only and sufficient entrance requirement?


15 posted on 06/04/2014 10:34:35 AM PDT by HonorInPa
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To: matthewrobertolson
As a protestant, I've never once heard anyone use scripture to justify premarital sex.

Never one time. It was always unambiguously condemned.

16 posted on 06/04/2014 10:35:01 AM PDT by skeeter
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To: oldtech
Amen. It isn't a Catholic vs Protestant issue. It is an issue of figleaf Christianity vs actual Christianity issue.

Same goes for gay marriage, abortion, social justice and all the other favorite topics of the left.

17 posted on 06/04/2014 10:37:03 AM PDT by Vigilanteman (Obama: Fake black man. Fake Messiah. Fake American. How many fakes can you fit in one Zer0?)
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To: matthewrobertolson

The author is an idiot.


18 posted on 06/04/2014 10:38:15 AM PDT by GeronL (Vote for Conservatives not for Republicans)
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To: Steve_Seattle; metmom

The Bible says its wrong, so protestants say it’s wrong.

Pretty simple.

It takes a hateful “Catholic” to write something like that.


19 posted on 06/04/2014 10:39:11 AM PDT by GeronL (Vote for Conservatives not for Republicans)
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To: PaForBush

The question was — Does the Bible teach that pre-marital sex is wrong.

Well, then we have to explain what pre-marital sex is.

There is a word for sex OUTSIDE of marriage — FORNICATION.

I presented the dictionary definition of the word.

Then I presented what the Bible teaches about fornication.

THAT’s all. There is nothing pro-catholic or pro-protestant in it.


20 posted on 06/04/2014 10:39:43 AM PDT by SeekAndFind
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