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To: vladimir998
You must have never asked yourself why the Magyars began leaving the areas they'd lived in East of the Urals, for the West. They start showing up between the 4th to the 8th century AD. At the beginning of the 9th century folks in Europe were beginning to be aware vaguely of stirrings beyond the Urals, and then in the 11th century everybody in the middle east learned about the Seljuks.

By the time the core Mongol group in Mongolia and the Chinese periphery had achieved technological parity with China, these fellows had already driven Central Asian people and culture into wave after wave of settlers who moved boldly into Europe and the Middle East. Finally the Mongols themselves came on the heels of these people and really raised some cain ~ among other things they re-established the Silk Road.

People who spoke Turkish languages were already on the scene, and took over about 1060.

The Islamic Caliphate was turned into a tax farm for the benefit of the Turks in short order.

Neither Persian nor Kurdish nor Arabic are FInno Ugric, or Altaic languages. Turkish languages are, to one degree or the other, both ~ with related and cognate Turkish languages spoken from Estonia/Finland/Hungary all the way to Japan. The guys who brought those languages to those areas were not peaceful agrarian reformers.

The loss of the Umayyads to the Iberian peninsula contributed greatly to the initial decline of the Arabs

14 posted on 03/17/2013 10:25:52 AM PDT by muawiyah
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To: muawiyah

You wrote:

“You must have never asked yourself why the Magyars began leaving the areas they’d lived in East of the Urals, for the West.”

Actually I did ask that question - in graduate school when I was finishing a field in the history of China (actually it was a field dedicated to the study of nomads, but the professor was kind enough to call it Chinese history so it would be approved by my university). And you know what the answer was? NOT the Mongols of the 13th century.

“They start showing up between the 4th to the 8th century AD. At the beginning of the 9th century folks in Europe were beginning to be aware vaguely of stirrings beyond the Urals, and then in the 11th century everybody in the middle east learned about the Seljuks.
By the time the core Mongol group in Mongolia and the Chinese periphery had achieved technological parity with China, these fellows had already driven Central Asian people and culture into wave after wave of settlers who moved boldly into Europe and the Middle East. Finally the Mongols themselves came on the heels of these people and really raised some cain ~ among other things they re-established the Silk Road.”

Blah, blah, blah. There was still no change wrought in Arab civilization due to the Mongols before 1200. Just deal with it.

“People who spoke Turkish languages were already on the scene, and took over about 1060.”

Still not Mongols after 1200.

“The Islamic Caliphate was turned into a tax farm for the benefit of the Turks in short order.”

Still not Mongols after 1200.

“Neither Persian nor Kurdish nor Arabic are FInno Ugric, or Altaic languages. Turkish languages are, to one degree or the other, both ~ with related and cognate Turkish languages spoken from Estonia/Finland/Hungary all the way to Japan. The guys who brought those languages to those areas were not peaceful agrarian reformers.”

You’re still failing misserably to substantiate your claim about Mongols before the year 1200.

“The loss of the Umayyads to the Iberian peninsula contributed greatly to the initial decline of the Arabs”

What I posted was accurate. What you posted was not. No number of posts on your part will change that.


18 posted on 03/17/2013 3:39:23 PM PDT by vladimir998
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