thank you
Posted on 08/12/2012 1:27:48 PM PDT by CHRISTIAN DIARIST
thank you
The Bible says marriage is one man one woman; and says the marriage bed is holy.
“Marriage is honorable among all, and the bed undefiled; but fornicators and adulterers God will judge.”
Hebrews 13:4
Assuming we believe that Jesus is God, and God wrote the Bible, then I think it is safe to assert that Jesus says sex, within the context of biblical marriage, is good.
And nowhere have I said otherwise.
There probably weren’t that many homosexuals in Jewish society at the time of Christ, as the homosexuals were required to be stoned to death. Stoning prevented them from spreading their perversions. Jesus came to fulfill the Law and the Prophets neither of which condoned sodomy in any form.
Rome on the other hand...
“And nowhere have I said otherwise.”
I didn’t mean to imply you did, just adding to the conversation.
Oh, OK. Well, your remarks are very on point. Great input, and much appreciated. :-)
sure he did
Mk 10:6 But from the beginning of the creation God made them male and female.
Mk 10:7 For this cause shall a man leave his father and mother, and cleave to his wife;
Mk 10:8 And they twain shall be one flesh: so then they are no more twain, but one flesh.
Mk 10:9 What therefore God hath joined together, let not man put asunder.
I don’t think anyone has intended to say that God (or Jesus) has a negative view of sexual relations in marriage. However, the article was about “what Jesus addressed,” which has to mean His known statements during His earthly life, as recorded in the Gospels, rather than everything contained in the Bible. (There would be no point in the question, otherwise, since homosexual activity for both men and women is condemned in the strongest terms wherever it is mentioned in the Bible.)
Jesus spoke positively of marriage, and defended the covenant against both divorce and adultery. He also spoke positively of celibacy. Anything further regarding sex is the words of the author of the article, not what Jesus Himself said.
I was supporting marital sex in the procreative form: that means normal sex, sex that has not been intentionally disabled or diverted from the reproductie function.
In fact, most instances of marital intercourse cannot achieve pregnancy. Intercourse can achieve conception in less than one week out of each month, and there are long stretches --- during pregnancy, and during the breastfeeding anovulatory state, and of course after menopause --- when conception is impossible. Nevertheless, intercourse at those times is still "in the procreative form" (that is, if there is ejaculation into the vagina), simply because that's the way we are designed: to be fertile sometimes, and not others.
Of course that excludes ejaculating up your spouse's (blank) or down her (blank) or onto the ground --- I don't want to cause unwanted mental pictures here --- or into a baggie or a dish of raw liver. Onanism. Ugh.
The moral principle is quit non-discriminatory by the way. Anal intercourse is considered wrong whether it's done by homosexuals or heterosexuals.
The gay author Richard Rodriguez wrote rather scornfully that he was told gay sex is wrong because "two gay men don't have a kosher place to stick it." But that's a fact: they don't have a kosher place to stick it.
It's a question of whether you're cooperating with the normal sexual design, or trying to sabotage it somehow. Contraception is one way to sabotage it; sodomy is another. We'll leave Portnoy with his complaints.
This has nothing to do with natural or physiological unintended infertility.
It's never ever been considered sinful for a husband and wife to have normal sex, even if one or the other of them is naturally infertile.
Sorry for the perverted details. At least I hope I have not been obscure this time!
Queen Katherine was not sterile. She and King Henry had several children, of whom the later Queen Mary was the only one who lived to adulthood. They did not, however, produce a son who survived birth.
Bravo. Simply bravo.
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