Posted on 04/15/2012 7:12:32 AM PDT by GonzoII
Exo_34:28 So he was there with the LORD forty days and forty nights; he neither ate bread nor drank water. And He wrote on the tablets the words of the covenant, the Ten Commandments.
So they were numbered, but how?
Wikipedia cites the following:
The two texts commonly known as the Ten Commandments are given in two books of the Bible: Exodus 20:1–17 and Deuteronomy 5:4–21.
Religious groups use one of three historical divisions of Exodus 20:1–17 into ten parts[14] tabulated below:
Phi. The Philonic division is the oldest, from the writings of Philo and Josephus (first century), which labels verse 3 as number 1, verses 4–6 as number 2, and so on. Groups that generally follow this scheme include Hellenistic Jews, Greek Orthodox and Protestants except Lutherans. Most representations of the commandments include the prologue of verse 2 as either part of the first commandment or as a preface.[15][16]
Tal. The Talmudic division, from the third-century Jewish Talmud, makes verses 1–2 as the first "saying" or "declaration" (rather than "commandment"), and combines verses 3–6 as number 2.[17]
Aug. The Augustinian division (fifth century) starts with number 2 of the Talmudic division, and makes an extra commandment by dividing the prohibition on coveting into two. Both Roman Catholics and Martin Luther adopted the Augustinian method. Roman Catholics use Deuteronomy by default when quoting the Ten Commandments whereas Luther used the Exodus version.[18]
Since the Philonic division is closest to the time that Jesus Christ lived, it's very likely that he considered this the valid numbering system.
The article attempts to obfuscate the fact that they are using a numbering system that was developed over 500 years after the death of Christ.
That is an interesting response. Ideas are the subjective evocation of objective facts and can only be expressed in words and terms. Terms form the basis of statements which in turn form arguments. They are essential to ensure that arguments do not become quarrels.
The use of precise terms accomplishes exactly the opposite of muddying the issues. It illuminates the discussion by ensuring that ideas are clearly articulated and than innuendo and the unintended do not make communication impossible. Since Protestantism places so much emphasis on the written word, it seems that an intentional lack of precision is actually irreligious.
In the context of the article, are you agreeing that the commandment prohibits the making of statues?
Thanks! You wrote Johnny! Lol! I just came back a month ago on vacation with my cousins and my Brothers. Mini family reunion. They were calling me Johnny half the time. I am the youngest in this group who went on the trip. Brought me back to my childhood. Lol! I never hear this as an adult. It has a nice sound.
Can you elaborate on paradosis?
I am a litte familiar with the concept in the sense of traditions which, of course, Paul would have have known and lived.
Paradosis, in the New Testament context, is a passing on of a tradition. The word is used to refer to oral teachings both positively (3 times) and negatively (5 times).
What we can take from this is that "Tradition" itself is not categorically condemned, but rather what the content and origin of that Tradition is. This will be hotly contested in these threads because the categorical condemnation of Tradition is essential to Sola Scriptura Protestantism.
I also mentioned the word "kerygma" because it is the proclamation of a religious truth. The Church teaches that the paradosis of the New Testament IS kerygma.
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