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To: Diego1618
How come no one can tell me why the Magesterium cannot properly interpret the plain language of Matthew 28:1?

Let's see if you can get "the plain language of" John 6:53-57 right...

then we'll know if it's worth answering your question regarding Matthew 28:1.
40 posted on 07/27/2006 8:15:28 PM PDT by dollars_for_dogma
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To: dollars_for_dogma

***Let's see if you can get "the plain language of" John 6:53-57 right...***

"I am the true vine"

Yep in plain language... Jesus is a plant.


48 posted on 07/27/2006 9:28:15 PM PDT by alamo boy (I left my heart in San Antonio)
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To: dollars_for_dogma
Let's see if you can get "the plain language of" John 6:53-57 right...

John 6:53-57 How's that?

Matthew 26:26-29

Mark 14:22-25

Luke 22:17-20

I don't really understand what your point here is....but, it is obvious the Passover symbolism is being changed from that of a slaughtered lamb, in the temple, on the 14th of Nisan to that of our Saviour being sacrificed for us in its stead. The bread and the wine, being symbolic, as his body and his blood.

The Apostle Paul clarifies it further in 1 Corinthians 5:7-8 where he says Christ is our new Passover and let us continue to keep the feast....which he and the Apostles did. In fact they continued to keep the Passover until it was finally outlawed by the Roman Church/State in the fourth century.

Our Saviour was crucified at about 3:00 p.m. on the 14th of Nisan as the lambs were being slaughtered in the temple. It was the Day of preparation and this was the Sabbath I spoke of in an earlier post that is mentioned in Mark 16:1. Your Magesterium is confused about that because they think that the Sabbath is the weekly Sabbath and hence the incorrect story to all of you folks.

Here is some information on the early Fathers still celebrating Passover well into the second century. As you can see it is the Roman Church that has it all wrong. I'm sure they had a magesterium of sorts then also.

49 posted on 07/27/2006 9:29:18 PM PDT by Diego1618
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