I did not state nor have I come to that conclusion. I question the existence of a legal basis for marriage in states that have not established a definition of marriage consistent with the SCOTUS decision and have left in place a definition inconsistent with that decision.
Nobody is obliged to rewrite laws consistent with an aberrant Supreme Court decision. What is that supposed to mean?
You still are being deliberately opaque. And you continue, AFAICS, to disregard the freedoms recognized by the First Amendment that Obergefell v. Hodges have attacked.