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Here's a disquieting thought: Will the "free-range delegate" concept we see today in the headlines also be a factor again in the general election? Should we be afraid, very afraid, of Electoral College electors being corrupted? Almost half the states permit "free-range electors." (Read more at the link for details.)

I cannot remember this being a significant issue in any previous election in my lifetime; but some things are different now:

A few months ago, we would have all said "They wouldn't dare!" But nowadays?

1 posted on 04/20/2016 2:04:29 PM PDT by snarkpup
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To: snarkpup

Oh how I long for our nation to return to our Founding Principles and values!

We have strayed so far - but I refuse to think even now that all is lost. We need severe correction for sure.


2 posted on 04/20/2016 2:12:33 PM PDT by TEXOKIE (We must surrender only to our Holy God and never to the evil that has befallen us.)
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To: snarkpup
There is no Constitutional provision or Federal law that requires Electors to vote according to the results of the popular vote in their States

For that matter, there is no Constitutional provision or Federal law which provides for people in their states voting to choose Electors in the first place.

The method of choosing Electors is entirely at the discretion of State Legislatures, a "Presidential election" is neither required nor necessary.

4 posted on 04/20/2016 2:22:45 PM PDT by Jim Noble (Ryan never could have outfought Trump. I never knew, until this day, that it was Romney all along.)
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To: snarkpup

The electors are chosen by each party. Technically they are elected on election day. If a state is carried by the Democrat, then it will be the Democrat electors who vote in the electoral college. Its not as if electors are standing by to see who their state votes for to see who they will support in the electoral college. It will be party loyalists from the winning political party who cast the actual electoral votes.


5 posted on 04/20/2016 2:22:59 PM PDT by Dilbert San Diego
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To: snarkpup; AuH2ORepublican; BillyBoy; fieldmarshaldj

First of all, the constitution doesn’t set any restrictions on how the electors can vote other than the the P and VP candidates they vote for can’t be from the same state. So laws binding electors to statewide winners are unconstitutional. Loyal party members are chosen to be electors for a reason.

Second of all, under no circumstances would Republican electors vote for Hillary. Even going along with this ridiculous idea, they would vote for a RINO, throwing the election to the House so it could elect that RINO. But that’s not gonna happen either.


6 posted on 04/20/2016 2:31:20 PM PDT by Impy (Did you know "Hillary" spelled backwards is "Bitch"?)
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To: snarkpup
There is no Constitutional provision or Federal law that requires Electors to vote according to the results of the popular vote in their States. Some States, however, require Electors to cast their votes according to the popular vote.

That is because the Founders distrusted democracy and didn't anticipate that the people would actually be electing the president. Their vision was that the people would send the most informed citizens in their state to make the choice.

Occasionally, an elector defects. In 1976, one Ford elector (I think in Washington state) voted for Reagan, and four years earlier, a Nixon elector voted Libertarian.

Of course, it's never done, but you can always run a slate of unpledged electors, if you can get enough signatures -- and it's a way around "sore loser" laws.

13 posted on 04/20/2016 3:52:20 PM PDT by TBP (0bama lies, Granny dies.)
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16 posted on 04/20/2016 3:54:34 PM PDT by DoughtyOne (Hey Ted, why are you taking one for the RNC/GOPe team, and not ours? Not that we don't know.)
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