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Premarital Sex 'Immoral', No Religion Permits It: Court
Times of India ^ | Jan 5, 2014

Posted on 01/06/2014 1:09:13 PM PST by nickcarraway

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To: Dilbert San Diego

Under common law, rape was sexual intercourse without consent, obtained by force or fraud.

An example of the fraud, I think, was Santa Ana’s idea of carting a defrocked priest to “marry” him each evening to the young lady he picked out of the crowd. She was raped by fraud.

In the old days in England and America, breach of promise suits for marriage were quite common. I don’t know of any case where it was claimed that such a fraud constituted rape.


21 posted on 01/06/2014 2:18:16 PM PST by Sherman Logan
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To: nickcarraway

Along with punishing her for cheating on a future husband?


22 posted on 01/06/2014 2:39:12 PM PST by fuzzylogic (welfare state = sharing consequences of poor moral choices among everybody)
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To: nickcarraway
Premarital sex is "immoral" and against the "tenets of every religion", a Delhi court has said….

I think that on technical grounds, this statement is flawed and although this will get much disagreement, I even mean this from a Christian perspective. What is ‘premarital sex’? On simple terms, it would seem that this is ‘sex before marriage’… but that implies that the exact point in time when the marriage starts is known, right? So when does that happen? Is it is as soon as the ink is dry on a marriage certificate? That reduces marriage to being official based only on what a piece of paper says. Is it as soon as the wedding festivities are over? If this is against the ‘tenets of every religion’, what does the Bible say? Mar 10:8 and 9 says this…. “And they twain shall be one flesh: so then they are no more twain, but one flesh. What therefore God hath joined together, let not man put asunder.” And in 1 Corinthians 6:16, you will find this thought provoking statement…. “What? know ye not that he which is joined to an harlot is one body? for two, saith he, shall be one flesh.” Scripture does not tie the point in time when marriage starts to the wedding… it ties it to the point in time when the couple has sex for the first time. In other words, ‘premarital sex’ is an oxymoron….as soon as sex happens, the couple is married. That should give everyone pause for thought as they contemplate the number of wives and husbands they have that they never considered before….

23 posted on 01/06/2014 2:49:23 PM PST by hecticskeptic
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To: hecticskeptic

Great. Let’s obfuscate and give what has already become all too common - and immoral, as the judge said - complete legitimacy. Rationalize screwing around.

Notice how our republic has gone downhill in perfect timing with sexual morality going downhill (about equivalent to “The Pill”). But no one, not even “conservatives”, wants to acknowledge that. They decided it’s too much fun for them.

If it helps, “extramarital” is the term to use. All sex outside a marriage is immoral, period, and is so for a reason.


24 posted on 01/06/2014 3:09:58 PM PST by the OlLine Rebel (Common sense is an uncommon virtue./Technological progress cannot be legislated.)
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To: hecticskeptic
Wow, tough room. 'Cuddle Hormone' Nose Spray Tests Monogamy (although researchers had quite a time finding couples who engage in nasal sex).
25 posted on 01/06/2014 3:36:52 PM PST by SunkenCiv (http://www.freerepublic.com/~mestamachine/)
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To: the OlLine Rebel
If it helps, “extramarital” is the term to use. All sex outside a marriage is immoral, period, and is so for a reason.

Certainly no obfuscation on my part… what I was essentially saying was that where you end up at is all dependent on what is defined as the basis…. And God’s ‘basis’ is a lot tougher than what ‘we’ have defined as the basis of acceptability. There is absolutely no need to provide a definition of what is moral and what is immoral…. The Bible makes it crystal clear what is what. The problem is mankind and how they have defined morality which basically is that if two consenting adults want to have sex, that’s their own business. God’s view would appear to be that ‘two have become one’ at that very instance (became married in His eyes) and that is irrespective of whether one or both of the parties have been married (i.e. had sex) previously. And by the way, there is a reason why the 10 Commandments contain the sin of adultery’ in the list while what is referred to as ‘premarital sex’ is not included.

26 posted on 01/06/2014 7:00:20 PM PST by hecticskeptic
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