Question on Trade Unions (Vanity)

11/29/12 | me

[boop]

I was reading about the unions in Hollywood. I always thought that actors were being "pampered" as some golfcart takes them from the set to their car, the commissary, etc.

No. Even if a celebrity wants to walk 400 feet, union rules say they MUST have some (whatever union) guy drive them.

[traditional1]

Ohio is a "Closed Shop", aka "Union Shop" State. Trade Unions have a heirarchy of advancement, based on Seniority AND Skill levels. While they DO have good skills training, they also FORCE Members to pay the Dues (money-laundering of tax dollars to the DNC), AND, they are KNOWN to send thugs to Non-Union jobsites to intimidate the workers AND the businesses that hire them. Their rates are "Union Scale", which is FAR higher than like-quality Non-Union workers, which is why they have to make sure no one is hiring outside the Union Membership, if at all possible.

It is ALSO why the Government jobs are ALWAYS Union-requirement bids, because "Prevailing Wage" means Union Wage, and they don't want independent trades bidding and messing up their gravy train.

Non-Union/Right to Work means hiring based on PERFORMANCE, QUALITY, and SKILLS. That's why Union Seniority has so many non-productive Members who sit on their asses, but paid with their "time", and now watch the YOUNGER workers do all the work, while they collect their "Journeyman" wages and Benefits.

Look at all the deadwood in the Public Sector, and you will also see the same in the Private Sector where Unionism is the Law.

[nitzy]

So, if I understand correctly, the immoral part is that government jobs MUST be paid at the prevailing wage. Thus making the inefficient and corrupt unions competitive against the trim, efficient, market driven non-union shops.

Is this correct?

So now my next question is...

Does "right to work" encompass both the idea that one should not be forced to join a union as in the case of a manufacturing plant as well as the idea that government contracts are subject to free markets and not prevailing wage?

I was under the impression that it only dealt with the first subject.

[traditional1]

"Does "right to work" encompass both the idea that one should not be forced to join a union as in the case of a manufacturing plant as well as the idea that government contracts are subject to free markets and not prevailing wage?

I was under the impression that it only dealt with the first subject. "

It depends on the locale.

In major cities (the ones that are currently Democrat strongholds, that out-vote the number of Registered Voters via Fraud, in the Elections, such as in Cleveland), there are Union rules on Contracts, to assure Unions get all the taxpayer-funded work, at about 2x or 3x the cost of TRUE Competitive Bidding contracts that would allow non-Union Bids.

A Right-to-work State doesn't necessarily stop the cities from blocking non-Union workers from their Contracts, and because Union and Democrat means one and the same there, the Cities have ALL Unionized Public Employee Unions plus a Requirement that "Prevailing Wage" Language is in ALL their Contracts.

[USS Alaska]

Maybe he can teach me to hunt and I can teach him to think.

He can teach you to hunt, but thinking requires an open mind.

My brother in law is an ex-sniper with 20-15 vision and is an excellent hunter.

When he started his spewing lib ideas, I stopped going into the woods with him.

BTW, we hunted together for 25 years, but now I wouldn't trust him, and in the woods, he is a way better hunter {and professional shooter} than I am.

[Lou L]

Are you kidding? Have you been paying attention to the Obama Administration for the past four years?

I don't disagree that labor unions have been corrupt in the political process. The way the author of this post originally described it however, I differentiated a "trade union" from a labor union, assuming the trade union was more about meritorious qualifications, as opposed to politically-connected ones. If that's not the case here, then I'd lump them all together.