[DoodleDawg]

Article 1, Section 8, Clause 17 prohibits the federal government from owning or controlling any property other than the 10 square miles that make up Washington, D.C., and ports and forts.

It says exercise like legislative control over all places purchased by consent of the legislature. What if the government didn't purchase the property but instead owned the land before the state was created? And what if as part of their enabling act the state gave up all claims to federal property within its borders? That land would still be the property of the federal government to do with as they wished.

[Texas Eagle]

Watch the video. KrisAnne Hall explains it all.

Once a territory becomes a state, the federal government has no claims to the property except for use as ports or forts.

The property belongs to the state. I can't explain it as well as she does.