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To: P3_Acoustic; mamelukesabre; SunkenCiv

Maybe you’re right about the Celtic origins of the Picts. I did a quick Wikipedia search just now and couldn’t find any mention of some non-Indo European language. It might be a disproven old theory. I read a long time ago that the Romans described the Picts as being smaller and darker than other Celtic speakers and that they guessed that they had an Iberian origin.

As for the origins of the Scots, I refer you to SunkenCiv.


42 posted on 07/29/2012 4:52:12 PM PDT by haroldeveryman
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To: haroldeveryman

Thanks harold e. :’)


44 posted on 07/29/2012 5:23:39 PM PDT by SunkenCiv (https://secure.freerepublic.com/donate/)
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To: haroldeveryman
"Cheddar Man" from Somerset, England, is dated to 7150 B.C. and did not speak an Indo-European language (since the Indo-European languages did not disperse until much later and this was before the "Proto-Indo-European" phase of that language family.

I believe the builders of Stonehenge are thought to have spoken a non-Indo-European language. There were definitely people living in the British Isles before any Indo-European languages arrived there.

Given the genetic evidence for relationships with people in the Iberian peninsula, perhaps before the Celts arrived there was a language related to something spoken in Spain (either a relative of Basque or some other pre-Roman language of Spain).

50 posted on 07/30/2012 6:37:26 AM PDT by Verginius Rufus
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