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To: Wuli

You really made it look as if you were interested, but since this isn’t important to you, why post?

By the time Judaism arose, Hebrew had been supplanted by Aramaic. Abraham spoke — did not write — Hebrew.


20 posted on 05/29/2012 10:07:25 PM PDT by SunkenCiv (FReepathon 2Q time -- https://secure.freerepublic.com/donate/)
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To: SunkenCiv

I did NOT say it was not important “to me”.

I said that resolving the question was, to me, not important to a Jewish or Christian faiths (in my view), but it does have importance in the history of written language.


22 posted on 06/02/2012 12:26:57 PM PDT by Wuli
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To: SunkenCiv
As to Abraham - the first "Hebrew" (Genesis 14:13) - it would likely be safer to say he "spoke" the father Semitic tongue/language, or a proto-Semitic language, from which the spoken languages of Hebrew, Aramaic, Arabic and Samaritan evolved - as they have their differences but a common root that is distinguishable, large and pronounced.

"The etymology of the Semitic languages, which are fully developed yet have retained their primeval root system in pristine form, is of a different nature; theirs is an entirely internal affair. There is very little that Hebrew can gain from the etymological consideration of the few other surviving members of its family of tongues. Hebrew and its living relatives — Arabic and Aramaic [and Samaritan] — are formally similar, have identical roots of assorted shades of meaning, and are barely etymologically distinguishable from one another." [ http://www.hebrewetymology.com/Introduction%20%28English%29.pdf ]

23 posted on 06/02/2012 1:30:58 PM PDT by Wuli
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