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1 posted on 07/11/2002 5:13:38 PM PDT by fortheDeclaration
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To: fortheDeclaration; jude24; maestro; xzins
Bump for read
2 posted on 07/11/2002 5:15:18 PM PDT by fortheDeclaration
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To: fortheDeclaration
***[Footnotes are in red and placed in brackets]***

How come no RED LETTER FOOTNOTES!
I'm not reading it if it starts out with a misrepresentation. (Or is there a variant reading in the Nestle-Aland manuscript of this article?)
3 posted on 07/11/2002 5:20:47 PM PDT by drstevej
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To: fortheDeclaration
You know, of course, that Textus Receptus doesn't mean KJV. For example, the Geneva was TR. Why should the KJV be preferred over other Textus Receptus-based translations?
6 posted on 07/11/2002 6:44:54 PM PDT by A.J.Armitage
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To: fortheDeclaration
I was hoping this debate would not return again, but as many here it is one never settled. *SIGH* I do not wish to in any way diminish the incredible impact the KJV bible has had on the world, but I cannot ignore the textual inaccuracies and the utter nonsense of some of the passages. I'm not about to throw my KJV out the window, but neither will I surrender my NIV or NKJV because somebody tells me the KJV is an inspired translation. That's horsepuckey. On the whole, most translations are 99.99999% in agreement with each other. Many of the omissions or rewording that so many point to as some conspiracy to alter the Word would only have such an effect if the Bible contained only that verse and we had to extrapolate the Gospel from that phrase (ex- the omission of "the Lord" before the word "Jesus" in some passages can't possibly be construed as trying to rob Christ of his Lordship when it is so clearly established throughout the rest of the translation.) The message of the Gospel is every bit as present in my NIV and NKJV as in your KJV. There are certainly moves afoot to co-opt certain truths in the Word in the name of political correctness these days (I know there's a proposed translation that will remove much of the gender language from Scripture which I whole-heartedly oppose), but the assumption that ALL other translations to this point (except the "authorized" KJV of course) were done with any purpose other than seeking to faithfully transmit the Word of God is rediculous.
22 posted on 07/12/2002 7:01:01 AM PDT by Frumanchu
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To: fortheDeclaration
When, "...God said, Let us make man in our image," he knew much would be lost in translation.
80 posted on 07/13/2002 9:27:29 AM PDT by onedoug
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To: fortheDeclaration; drstevej; jude24; xzins; All
So, I've read all the posts up to #80 and considered them as I pose my questions:

The discussion has not addressed that fact that the original Hebrew in the OT had neither vowels nor punctuation, and Hebrew scholars have some disagreement on how to understand and construe their original Hebrew language, let alone the authorship and translation to english (any english KJV, NAS, YLT for that matter), or even to Hebrew with vowels and punctuation.

This seems extremely important as the addition of vowel points and punctuation is deemed uninspired, is it not? Yet the different outcomes are significant. Uninspired punctuation in Dan 9:25-26 can lead to or obstruct Daniel's 69 week prophecy being fulfilled by Christ's Baptism. One uninspired vowel point in Zechariah 5 changes the meaning from 'a woman [Strong's 802] in a container' to 'an evil fire offering [Strong's 801] in a container' - which leads to vastly differing eschatological interpretations (the latter being much more plausible albeit at odds with traditional translations).

In the NT the whole controversy over the ending of Mark is quite disconcerting.

So, my questions for the KJV-only advocates are:
- how do you account for uninspired vowels and punctuation in Hebrew?
- how do you 'prove' the ending of Mark is authentic, noting the seeming grammatical changes at Mark 16:9 and the seeming opposing teaching on tongues relative to Paul's teaching in 1 Cor 12:8-11 and 1 Cor 12:30?

I believe God did inspire original scripture to be inerrant, but surely God knew we would have these contemporary confusions and differences. There are other aspects of His word where we (in the natural) resort to explanations like 'well, everything is in God's timing', or 'it is already done in heaven, but we don't see it yet in the physical', or 'it must have been prayed amiss or not in his will', or 'it is a mystery'.

So, to anyone, would not God allow us to be challenged by an ambiguous passage here and there, just as He challenges us with parables and mysteries?

81 posted on 07/13/2002 10:26:45 AM PDT by Starwind
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To: fortheDeclaration; All
I jost got through reading The Answer Book by Thomas Gipp. I definately recommend it.
84 posted on 07/13/2002 11:03:45 AM PDT by Commander8
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To: fortheDeclaration
KJV 1911

GOD'S word in english

95 posted on 07/16/2002 5:49:55 PM PDT by RMrattlesnake
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