“Broaden” and “Lengthen” imply that there is a standard. Who / what / where is the standard?
You are reading more into the text than is there. Jesus did no more than state a fact: the phylacteries were being broadened and the tassels lengthened. There is zero evidence that that He was lying.
Who / what / where is the standard
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First, each book was written by an apostle or one closely associated with an apostle.
Second, the contents of these books were revelatory in nature.
Third, these books were universally recognized by the church in their teaching and preaching ministry.
Fourth, these books were considered inspired because they bore the marks of inspiration.
But let me cut off the expected response I’ve heard before.
Today’s Romanist org that calls itself Catholic has NOT proven itself to be the 1st century New Testament ekklesia.
Rather, what Scripture shows is that Rome is NOT the New Testament church, because Rome preaches in contradiction to what the NT church taught. And we know what they taught, because we see it in Scripture.
There is no appeal to a standard of length, and which would have been given under the Law which detailed such - if Deuteronomy 6:8; 11:18 and Exodus 13:9, 16 were meant to be taken literally - but the censure is against ostentatious prideful display of religiousity as a a matter of fashion. Which also applies to ostentatious clerical garb and royal titles in Catholicism
Length had no standard, and If everyone else had the long phylacteries then the Scribes and Pharisees would not have stood out, but it was the distinctive nature of the phylacteries, and the motive behind them that is reproved, not some violation of length as defined in oral tradition.
And the Jews certainly had and have their holy oral tradition, with its many absurdities and superstitions (as the Babylonian Talmud manifests), and which is no more the word of God than all that Catholicism claims is the oral word of God.